Question 14 Marks
In the derivation of $P_1-P_2=P g z$, it was assumed that the liquid is incompressible. Why will this equation not be strictly valid for a compressible liquid?
Answer
View full question & answer→For gases which are compressible we have already derived that $\text{P}=\text{p}_0\text{e}-\frac{\text{MgA}}{\text{RT}}$