Question 513 Marks
If $S_p$ denotes the sum of the series $1+\text{r}^{\text{p}}+\text{r}^{2\text{r}}+\ \dots\text{ to }\infty$ and $S_p$ the sum of the series $1-\text{r}^{\text{p}}+\text{r}^{\text{2p}}-\ \dots\text{ to }\infty,$ prove that $\text{S}_\text{p} + \text{S}_\text{p} = 2 \text{S}_{2\text{p}}.$
Answer
View full question & answer→$\text{S}_\text{p}=1+\text{r}^{\text{p}}+\text{r}^{2\text{p}}+\ \dots\ +\infty$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1-\text{r}^{\text{r}}}$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=1-\text{r}^\text{p}+\text{r}^{2\text{p}}+\ \dots\ +\infty$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1+\text{r}^\text{p}}$
Now,
$\text{S}_\text{p}+\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1-\text{r}^\text{p}}+\frac{1}{1+\text{r}^{\text{p}}}$
$=\frac{2}{1-\text{r}^{2\text{p}}}$
$\text{S}_\text{p}+\text{S}_\text{p}=2\times\text{S}_{2\text{p}}$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1-\text{r}^{\text{r}}}$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=1-\text{r}^\text{p}+\text{r}^{2\text{p}}+\ \dots\ +\infty$
$\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1+\text{r}^\text{p}}$
Now,
$\text{S}_\text{p}+\text{S}_\text{p}=\frac{1}{1-\text{r}^\text{p}}+\frac{1}{1+\text{r}^{\text{p}}}$
$=\frac{2}{1-\text{r}^{2\text{p}}}$
$\text{S}_\text{p}+\text{S}_\text{p}=2\times\text{S}_{2\text{p}}$