Question
Explain different types of RNA along with process of transcription.

Answer

→ Type of RNA In bacteria, there are three major types of RNAs:
(i) mRNA (messenger RNA),
(ii) tRNA (transfer RNA), and
(iii) rRNA (ribosomal RNA).
→ All three RNAs are needed to synthesise a protein in a cell.
→ The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code, and rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during translation.
→ There is a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria.
Process of Transciption
→ RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation).
It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerises in a template depended fashion following the rule of complementarity.
→ It somehow also facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation.
→ Only a short stretch of RNA remains bound to the enzyme.
→ Once the polymerases reaches the terminator region, the nascent RNA falls off, so also the RNA polymerase. This results in termination of transcription.
→ An intriguing question is that how is the RNA polymerases able to catalyse all the three steps, which are initiation, elongation and termination.
→ The RNA polymerase is only capable of catalysing the process of elongation. It associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) and termination-factor (p) to initiate and terminate the transcription, respectively.
→ Association with these factors alter the specificity of the RNA polymerase to either initiate or terminate.
Image
→ In bacteria, since the mRNA does not require any processing to become active, and also since transcription and translation take place in the same compartment (there is no separation of cytosol and nucleus in bacteria), many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA is fully transcribed.
→ Consequently, the transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Study the given table and answer the questions based on it.
 
Hormone
Source
Function
(A)
Oxytocin
W
Ejection of milk
(B)
X
Anterior lobe of pituitary gland
Stimulates secretion of ABP from Sertoli cells
(C)
Y
Placenta
Maintains corpus luteum to secrete progesterone
(D)
Relaxin
Ovary
Z
  1. Identify the hormones X and Y, respectively.
  1. Testosterone, FSH.
  2. LH, hPL.
  3. FSH, hCG.
  4. ICSH, hCG.
  1. W in the given table is:
  1. Hypothalamus.
  2. Posterior lobe of pituitary.
  3. Placenta.
  4. Ovary.
  1. Which of the following is correct for Z?
  1. Dilation of uterine cervix during labour pains.
  2. Stimulates the growth of the mammary glands during pregnancy.
  3. Supports the fetal growth and prevents desiccation.
  4. Forms protective plug in cervix of uterus during pregnancy.
  1. Which set of hormones is secreted only during pregnancy?
  1. Human chorionic gonadotropin, relax in and human placental lactogen.
  2. Human placental lactogen, estrogen and chorionic thyrotropin.
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin, human placental lactogen and progesterone.
  4. Chorionic thyrotropin, chorionic gonadotropin and estrogen.
  1. Assertion: Follicle stimulating hormone controls the maintenance and functions of male reproductive organs.
Reason: FSH acts directly on spermatogonia to stimulate sperm production.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Transgenic animals can serve as factories that in some cases, may produce large amounts of proteins more efficiently. Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human antibodies by introducing a large segment of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin genes. In transgenic large animals such as cows or sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value can be produced in large quantities in milk which is later purified. Transgenes can be used to alter many phenotypic properties including growth rate, fat composition, milk production, hair texture, etc.
i. In transgenic animals, i.e. cow and sheep proteins of pharmaceutical value are produced in large quantities in which gland. (1)
ii. Why is mouse the most preferred animal for studies on gene transfer? (1)
iii. Why does the production of transgenic animals take place? (2)
OR
Assertion (A): Transgenic mice have been engineered to express human antibodies. (2)
Reason (R): Large segments of human DNA encoding human immunoglobulin have been transferred to mice.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Differentiate between following.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The anther is a four-sided structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe. TI1e microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline. It is generally surrounded by four wall layers-the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum.
  1. A dithecous another consists of (A) microsporangia, (B) in each lobe.
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks.
S. No
A
B
(a)
Four
Two
(b)
Two
One
(c)
Two
Two
(d)
Four
One
  1. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a mature anther. Identify A, B and C.
(a)
A-Middle layer
B-Endothecium
C-Tapetum
(b)
A-Endothecium
B-Tapetum
C- Middle layer
(c)
A-Endothecium
B-Middle layer
C-Tapetum
(d)
A-Tapetum
B-Middle layer
C-Endothecium
  1. The function of labelled part X is:
  1. Dehiscence.
  2. Mechanical.
  3. Nutrition.
  4. Protection.
  1. Select the incorrect statement.
  1. Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four wall layers-epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
  2. Outer three layers perform functions of protection and dehiscence of anthers.
  3. Cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
  4. Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce microspore tetrads.
  1. Which function oftapetum is correct?
  1. Helps in pollen wall formation.
  2. Transportation of nutrients to inner side of another.
  3. Synthesis of callase enzyme for separation of microspore tetrads.
  4. All of these.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases : multiplication, growth and maturation. Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH, LH, FSH. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.
  1. What is the function of hormone FSH?
  1. It inhibits the formation of estrogen.
  2. It induces the release of secondary oocyte.
  3. It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
  4. It causes ovulation.
  1. Which hormone induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle?
  1. Follicle stimulating hormone.
  2. Gonadotropin releasing hormone.
  3. Progesterone.
  4. Luteinising hormone.
  1. Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocyte?
  1. Mitosis.
  2. Meiosis I.
  3. Amitosis.
  4. Meiosis II.
  1. Identify the function(s) of LH.
  1. Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle.
  2. Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
  3. Stimulates estrogen formation.
  4. Promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte.
  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
  4. (B) only.
  1. Assertion: The increase in progesterone level exerts positive feedback on GnRH.
Reason: The rising level of progesterone stimulate production of FSH and LH.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Explain pBR322 with its cloning sites, enzymes with well labeled diagram.###Explain: cloning sites. (Diagram is not necessary)
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
A technique known as amniocentesis is used to determine fetal abnormalities. This test chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid. However, this technique is legally banned now.
  1. Identify X and Y in the above given figure.
S. No
X
Y
(a)
Amnion
Chorion
(b)
Uterine wall
Placenta
(c)
Placenta
Uterine wall
(d)
Uterine wall
Amnion
  1. What is the function of Z?
  1. Z is an amniotic fluid which prevents dessication of an embryo.
  2. Z is yolk sac which functions as site of early blood cell formation.
  3. Z is amnion, which takes part in placenta formation.
  4. None of these
  1. Which of the following diseases can not be diagnosed by amniocentesis?
  1. Down's syndrome.
  2. Sickle cell disease.
  3. Jaundice.
  4. Cystic fibrosis.
  1. Assertion: Amniocentesis is legally banned for sex determination.
Reason: Amniocentesis was being misused for aborting normal female fetus.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. Which of these is a non-invasive technique of detecting fetal disorder?
  1. Fetoscopy.
  2. Chorionic villi sampling.
  3. Amniocentesis.
  4. Ultrasound imaging.
Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Malaria and dengue fever are major mosquito-borne public health problems in tropical countries. The authors report a malaria and dengue co-infection in an 11-year-old boy who presented with sustained fever for 10 days. The physical examination revealed a flushed face, injected conjunctivae and left submandibular lymphadenopathy. His peripheral blood smear showed few ring-form trophozoites of Plasmodium falciparum. His blood tests were positive for dengue NS-1 antigen and IgM antibody, and negative for IgG antibody. After the initiation of antimalarial treatment with artesunate and mefloquine, his clinical condition gradually improved. However, he still had low-grade fever that persisted for 6 days. Finally, he recovered well without fluid leakage, shock or severe bleeding.
i. Name the fish that help in eradication of mosquito larvae.
ii. What is the reason of symptoms of malaria?
iii. Name the body parts and host in which following events takes place in life cycle of plasmodium.
a. asexual reproduction
b. sexual reproduction.
OR
Name some vector borne diseases and their vector.
Draw a schematic diagram of typical anatropous ovule and describe structure of megasporangium in detail.###With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Cleavage is the series of rapid mitotic divisions in zygote and forms blastula. The 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are called blastomeres. Embryo with 64 blastomeres is known as blastocyst and has blastocoel cavity. Blastocyst gets implanted in uterine wall and leads to pregnancy.
  1. Solid mass of cells with 16 blastomeres is called:
  1. Morula.
  2. Blastula.
  3. Gastrula.
  4. Zygote.
  1. At which stage of embryonic development, trophoectoderm develops?
  1. Zygote.
  2. Morula.
  3. Blastula.
  4. Gastrula.
  1. Site of implantation is:
  1. Endometrium of uterus.
  2. Cervix.
  3. Uterine fundus.
  4. Infundibulum of oviduct.
  1. Correct sequence of various structures formed during embryonic development is:
  1. Morula → Embryo → Gastrula → Blastula.
  2. Zygote → Embryo → Morula → Blastula.
  3. Blastula → Morula → Gastrula → Embryo.
  4. Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula.
  1. Assertion: Side of blastocyst with inner cell mass is called animal pole.
Reason: Inner cell mass gives rise to embryo.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.