Question
Explain Methodology of HGP

Answer

→ The methods involved two major approaches. One approach focused on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA (referred to as Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTS).
→ The other took the blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contained all the coding and non-coding sequence, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions (a term referred to as Sequence Annotation).
→ For sequencing, the total DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into random fragments of relatively smaller sizes (recall DNA is a very long polymer, and there are technical limitations in sequencing very long pieces of DNA) and cloned in suitable host using specialised vectors.
→ The cloning resulted into amplification of each piece of DNA fragment so that it subsequently could be sequenced with ease.
→ The commonly used hosts were bacteria and yeast, and the vectors were known as BAC (bacterial artificial chromosomes); and YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes).
→ The fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that worked on the principle of a method developed by Frederick Sanger. (Remember, Sanger is also credited for developing method for determination of amino acid sequences in proteins).
→ There sequences were then arranged based on some overlapping regions present in them.
→ This required generation of overlapping fragments for sequencing. Alignment of these sequences was humanly not possible.
→ Therefore, specialised computer based programs were developed.
→ These sequences were subsequently annotated and were assigned to each chromosome.
→ The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed only in May 2006 (this was the last of the 24 human chromosomes - 22 autosomes and X and Y - to be sequenced).
→ Another challenging task was assigning the genetic and physical maps on the genome.
→ This was generated using information on polymorphism of restriction endonuclease recognition sites, and some repetitive DNA sequences known as microsatellites (one of the applications of polymorphism in repetitive DNA sequences shall be explained in next section of DNA fingerprinting).

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Explain: Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance.###Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in genetics.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Non-native or alien species are often introduced in advertently for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away the local species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. For example, water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) was introduced in Indian waters to reduce pollution. It was clogged water bodies including wetlands at many places resulting in death of several aquatic plants and animals.

  1. Island water ecosystem are the most vulnerable due to:
  1. Small size.
  2. Small number of species.
  3. Increases reproductive capacity.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Which of the following is not an alien species?
  1. Lantana camara.
  2. Periplaneta americana.
  3. Nile Perch.
  4. Yucca moth.
  1. Second major cause of species extinction is:
  1. Habitat loss and fragmentation.
  2. Over exploitation.
  3. Alien species invasion.
  4. Co-extinction.
  1. Assertion: Eichhomia crassipes drains off oxygen from water and can be seen growing in standing water.

Reason: Eichhornia crassipes is an indigenous species of India.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. The population of species Pin a certain conununity was constant until a population species Q from a distant land was subsequently introduced into that community. The interaction between the two populations is reflected in the graph below.

What could be the possible reason for the decrease in the population of species P over a number of days?

  1. Species Q is a predator of species P.
  2. Species Q is a prey species which wiped out the population of species P.
  3. Species P and Q compete for space but feeds on different food.
  4. None of these.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in 1928 marked the beginning of the remarkable era in medical field. Penicillin was the first antibiotic extracted from Penicillium notatum. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial diseases. These can be broad spectrum which can kill diverse group of disease causing bacteria and narrow spectrum which is effective only against one group of pathogenic strain. Antibiotics can act as bactericides or bacteriostatic. Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria by - disruption of cell wall synthesis (e.g., penicillin, cephalosporin, etc.), inhibition of SOS ribosome function (e.g.; erythromycin), inhibition of 30S ribosome function (e.g., streptomycin, neomycin), inhibition of amino acid-tRNA binding to ribosome (e.g., tetracyline). etc. Bacteriostatic antibiotics do not kill the bacteria rather they restrict the growth of bacteria. Penicillin belongs to $\beta$-lactum group of antibiotics and it inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding and inactivating protein. It inhibits transpeptidation of reaction and blocks cross-linking of the cell wall. It is used to treat tonsilitis, sore throat, gonorrhoea, rheumatic fever and some pneumonia types.

  1. The first antibiotic was extracted from a:
  1. Lichen.
  2. Fungus.
  3. Eubacteria.
  4. Acti-nomycetes.
  1. Which of the following kills bacteria by interfering SOS ribosome function?
  1. Cephalosporin.
  2. Erythromycin.
  3. Streptomycin.
  4. Neomycin.
  1. $\beta$-lactum group of antibiotics kill the bacterial pathogen by:
  1. Disruption of plasma membrane.
  2. Inhibition of translation of mRNA.
  3. Inhibition of translation of mRNA
  4. Inhibition of transcription of mRNA.
  1. Penicillin is not used to treat.
  1. Pneumonia.
  2. Tonsilitis.
  3. Rheumatic fever.
  4. Candidiasis.
  1. Assertion: Cephalosporins act by disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis mechanism.

Reason: Cephalosporins are bacteriostatic antibiotics.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Reerna, Jai and Ankit are suffering from autoimmune diseases of adrenal cortex, joints and thyroid gland, respectively. Their immune system failed to recognise self and non-self and started destroying their body's own proteins. They are seeking proper medical help for their conditions but their condition cannot be cured completely.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

  1. Select the option that correctly identifies autoimmune diseases of Reema, Jai and Ankit.
S no.
Reema
Jai
Ankit
(a)
Diabetes
Grave's disease
Rheumatic fever
(b)
Pernicious anaemia
Multiple sclerosis
Myasthenia gravis
(c)
Addison's disease
Rheumatoid arthritis
Hashismoto's thyroiditis
(d)
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
AIDS
  1. Reema's autoimmune condition is characterised by
  1. Undersecretion of insulin.
  2. Destruction of RB Cs and low RB C count.
  3. Undersecretion of adrenal cortex hormones.
  4. Low production of intrinsic factor required for absorption of B12
  1. What do you think is the major cause of Jai's condition?
  1. Deterioration of myelin sheath around nerve cells, leading to loss of precise muscle control
  2. Destruction of heart cells, leading to weakening of entire heart wall.
  3. Destruction of beta cells, leading to undersecretion of insulin.
  4. Deposition of immune complexes of IgM, IgG and complement in joints thereby inflaming joints, destroying articular cartilage and fusing bones.
  1. How do you think Ankit's condition got diagnosed?
  1. Low level of thyroid hormone and elevated levels of TSH in Ankit's blood.
  2. Presence of antibodies against thyroid pen oxidase (TPO antibodies) in Ankit's blood.
  3. Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), reduced C-reactive protein (CRP) in Ankit.
  4. Both (a) and (b)
  1. Assertion: Immunosuppressive drugs often reduce the severity of autoimmune disorders.

Reason: Monoclonal antibodies have been successfully used in the treatment of autoimmune disease.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Enzymes are best known for their ability to catalise biochemical reactions without undergoing any change. A large number of enzymes are being used in biotechnological industry. Most of them are obtained from microbes. Proteases degrade proteins and polypeptides. Most of the commercially applicable proteases are alkaline and are biosynthesised mainly by bacteria such as Pseudomonas, Bacillus and some fungi like, Aspergillus. These enzymes are used in clearing beer, softening of bread and meat, degumming of silk, etc. Alkaline serine proteases have the largest applications in bio-industry. Alkaline proteases have shown their capability to work under high pH, temperature and in presence of inhibitory compounds. Another important group of enzymes is amylases. Amylolytic enzymes act on starch. These are obtained from Aspergillus, Rhizopus and Bacillus sp. These are used in softening and sweetening of bread, production of alcoholic beverages from starchy materials, clearing of turbidity in juices caused by starch, etc.
  1. Polypeptides are degraded by:
  1. Amylases.
  2. Proteases.
  3. Pectinases.
  4. Lipases.
  1. Amylolytic enzymes are not obtained from:
  1. Aspergillus.
  2. Aspergillus.
  3. Mucor.
  4. Bacillus.
  1. Clearing of turbidity in juices caused by starch is achieved by:
  1. Amylases.
  2. Proteases.
  3. Rennet.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Select the incorrect option from the following.
  1. Enzymes are proteinaceous substances.
  2. Enzymes are substrate specific.
  3. Enzymes are large sized molecules.
  4. Microbial enzymes can work only in normal temperature and pH.
  1. A farmer harvests corns and prepares corn starch. He wants to prepare some corn syrup from this. for the conversion he needs to use enzyme ______.
  1. Amylase.
  2. Glucoamylases.
  3. Glucoisomerases.
  4. All of these.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Each testicular globule of testis contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules. Wall of each seminiferous tubule is formed of single layered germinal epithelium. Majority of cells in this epithelium are cuboidal, called male germ cells. Study the transverse section of part of seminiferous tubule and answer the following questions.

  1. What is the characteristic of K?
  1. K is spermatogonium which grows into primary spermatocyte.
  2. K is Sertoli cell which provides nutrition to spermatids.
  3. K is secondary spermatocyte which undergo meiosis II to form spermatid.
  4. K is spermatid being converted into sperm.
  1. Which of the following cell undergo reduction division to form secondary spermatocyte?
  1. J
  2. M
  3. L
  4. K
  1. How many among the following have 46 chromosomes?

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 3
  1. Select an option that correctly identifies different labels.
  1. L- Primary spermatocyte, N - Spermatozoa, M - Secondary spermatocyte.
  2. J - Spermatogonium, K - Sertoli cell, O - Spermatozoa.
  3. L- Primary spermatocyte, M - Secondary spermatocyte, N - Spermatozoa.
  4. J - Spermatogonium, K - Primary spermatocyte, N - Spermatid.
  1. Which hormone initiates spermatogenesis at puberty?
  1. FSH
  2. ICSH
  3. ABP
  4. GnRH
How interesingly Gene is amplified by using PCR? Explain with diagram.
Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The Kakapo is the world's largest and heaviest parrot, found only in New Zealand. It is unusual in that it is nocturnal, flightless and ground-dwelling. It is an excellent climber of trees, has strong legs that allow it to "jog" several kilometres in a single trip, and has mossy green plumage mottled with brown and yellow. The Kakapo is also critically endangered as of now, there were only few known living individuals left.
  1. Which could be the possible reason for Kakapo to be well-adapted to its environment prior to the arrival of humans in New Zealand?
  1. Kakapo was active only in the night when its potential predators would not be out for hunting.
  2. The Kakapo would likely be well-camouflaged among the forest foliage due to its greenish plumage.
  3. It was able to effectively hunt for food in the night.
  4. All of these.
  1. When humans started to settle in New Zealand, they took with them non-native animals, including mammals such as cats, dogs and stoats. By which of the following ways, human settlement likely contributed to a near decimation of Kakapo populations in New Zealand?
  1. Habitat destruction.
  2. Alien species invasion.
  3. Pollution.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. All known survived Kakapo have been relocated by the New Zealand government to three predator-free islands, where they are monitored year round by staffs and volunteers to ensure that the birds are safe, healthy and well-fed. The extremely low population of Kakapo is a hurdle to the species becoming viable in the long term, despite such dedicated conservation efforts. This is because.
  1. The small population results in very small gene pool.
  2. There would be very Ii mited genetic diversity among the resulting offspring.
  3. Of reduced capacity of the species to adapt and survive changes in the environment.
  4. All of these.
  1. The reasons behind conserving biodiversity have been grouped into which of the following categories?
  1. Narrowly utilitarian.
  2. Broadly utilitarian.
  3. Ethical.
  4. All of these.
  1. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is:
  1. Wildlife sanctuaries.
  2. Biosphere reserves.
  3. Cryopreservation.
  4. National parks.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
In recombinant DNA technology, the fragments of DNA generated after cutting the DNA by restriction enzymes are separated according to their size or length by gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis is performed in a gel matrix so that molecules of similar electric charges can be separated on the basis of size. Most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is agarose. The fragments are separated under the influence of electric field. The separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining the DNA with compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation as bright orange band.
  1. Gel electrophoresis is used for the separation of
  1. DNA only.
  2. DNA and RNA only.
  3. DNA and proteins only.
  4. DNA, RNA and proteins.
  1. Most commonly used matrix is _____ which is a ______ extracted from _______.
  1. (i) agarose (ii) polysaccharide (iii) sea weed
  2. (i) agarose (ii) protein (iii) sea weed
  3. (i) EtBr (ii) polysaccharide (iii) sea weed
  4. (i) EtBr (ii) protein (iii) bacteria
  1. A DNA molecule was treated with a restriction endonuclease and three fragments of size (i) 426kb, (ii) 129kb and (iii) 46kb were obtained. Identify the order in which these bands will arrange themselves in the gel plate after gel electrophoresis is completed. (Assuming that negative part of electrode is towards the well)
  1. (iii) → (ii) → (i)
  2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
  3. (i) → (iii) → (ii)
  4. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
  1. Which of the following statements regarding gel electrophoresis is incorrect?
  1. Separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining DNA with EtBr.
  2. DNA fragments are separated according to their size.
  3. Under the influence of electric field, positively charged molecules move towards the anode and negatively charged molecules move towards the cathode.
  4. None of these.
  1. The factor that will not affect the rate of DNA migration in gel electrophoresis is:
  1. Size of DNA molecule.
  2. Concentration of DNA.
  3. Voltage supplied.
  4. Concentration of the gel.