Question
If ABCD is a parallelogram, then prove that$\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABD})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{BCD})\\ \ =\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ABC})=\text{ar}(\triangle\text{ACD})=\frac{1}{2}\text{ar}$ $(||^{gm} ABCD)$

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