MCQ
If $\text{A} = \begin{bmatrix}1&\text{amp; } \log_{\text{b}}\text{a}\\ \log_\text{a}\text{b}&\text{amp; } 1\end{bmatrix}$then $ |\text{A}|$ is equal to:
- ✓$0$
- B$\log_\text{a}\text{b}$
- C$-1$
- D$\log_\text{b}\text{a}$
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$STATEMENT -1$ : For each real $\mathrm{t}$, there exists a point $\mathrm{c}$ in $[\mathrm{t}, \mathrm{t}+\pi]$ such that $\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{c})=0$. because
$STATEMENT -2$: $f(t)=f(t+2 \pi)$ for each real $t$.
$f(x)=\frac{\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^{2}-5 x+6}{x^{2}-9}\right)}{\log _{e}\left(x^{2}-3 x+2\right)} \text { is }$