Question
If $x = \tan \Bigg(\frac{1}{\text{a}}\log \text{y}\Bigg),$show that
$(1+\text{x}^{2})\frac{\text{d}^{2}\text{y}}{\text{dx}^{2}}+(\text{2x - a})\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=0$.
$(1+\text{x}^{2})\frac{\text{d}^{2}\text{y}}{\text{dx}^{2}}+(\text{2x - a})\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=0$.