MCQ
If $y = {\log _2}[{\log _2}(x)]$, then ${{dy} \over {dx}}$ is equal to
- ✓${{{{\log }_2}e} \over {x{{\log }_e}x}}$
- B${1 \over {{{\log }_e}x{{\log }_e}2}}$
- C${1 \over {{{\log }_e}{{(2x)}^x}}}$
- DNone of these
$ = [{\log _e}{\log _e}x + {\log _e}({\log _2}e)]{\log _2}e$
$\therefore \frac{{dy}}{{dx}} = {\log _2}e.\frac{1}{{x{{\log }_e}x}}$.
Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.
$STATEMENT -1$ : For each real $\mathrm{t}$, there exists a point $\mathrm{c}$ in $[\mathrm{t}, \mathrm{t}+\pi]$ such that $\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{c})=0$. because
$STATEMENT -2$: $f(t)=f(t+2 \pi)$ for each real $t$.