Question
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Mutation explains the relationship between gene and DNA. The effects of large deletions and rearrangement in a segment of DNA results in loss or gain of gene and its function. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. A classical example of point mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain that results in change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine and results into a diseased condition called sickle cell anaemia.
  1. A mutation is a change produced by an alteration in the genetic mechanism and.
  1. May arise spontaneously.
  2. Is always induced by the environment.
  3. Is never advantageous.
  4. Is not inherited.
  1. The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT. The code for valine is CAA or CAT. In sickle cell haemoglobin, valine is present instead of glutamic acid.
Assuming a single base pair substitution has occurred, what is the mRNA code in the affected mutant?
  1. CUU
  2. GAA
  3. GAG
  4. GUA
  1. A mutation involving the substitution of one nitrogenous base for another has altered the base sequence of a DNA molecule, coding for four amino acids, as shown below.
Normal A-G-C-A-T-G-G-A-T-C-C-T

Mutant A-G-C-A-T-G-C-A-T-C-C-T
The table shows six codons and the corresponding amino acids into which each is translated.
mRNA codon
Amino acid
AAG
Lysine
CUA
Leucine
GGA
Glycine
GUA
Valine
UAC
Tyrosine
UCG
Serine
The mutation has changed the amino acid.
  1. Leucine to valine.
  2. Lysine to glycine.
  3. Serine to leucine.
  4. Tyrosine to lysine.
  1. Assertion : Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases, insert or delete one or multiple codons and so one or multiple amino acids.
Reason: Reading frame remains unaltered with insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. Part of the amino acid sequences in normal and sickle cell haemoglobin are shown.
Normal haemoglobin Sickle cell haemoglobin
Thr-Pro-Glu-Glu Thr-Pro-Val-Glu
mRNA codons for these amino acids are
Glutamine (Glu) GAA GAG
Praline (Pro) CCU CCC
Threonine (Thr) ACU ACC
Valine (Val) GUA GUG
Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell haemoglobin?

Answer

  1. (a) May arise spontaneously.
Explanation:

A mutation is a change in the DNA that changes the physiological effect of the DNA on the cell. Such phenomenon may be caused by radiation, chemical carcinogens, or may occur spontaneously.
  1. (d) GUA
Explanation:

Since a single base pair substitution has caused this mutation, the original codon for glutamic acid must have been CTT, and the mutant codon is CAT. The mRNA code for this mutant is hence GUA, i.e., complementary to CAT.
  1. (a) Leucine to valine.
Explanation:

The segment coding for GAT on the normal DNA molecule has been transcribed into CUA in the mRNA molecule, therefore the mutant DNA strand CAT will be transcribed into GUA on the mRNA molecule. This implies a change from the amino acid leucine to valine.
  1. (b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. (b)
Explanation:

CAU in tRNA is the only one that can compliment the valine in the sickle cell haemoglobin.

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During copulation, semen is released by the penis into the vagina. 'The motile sperms swim rapidly, fuse with ovum in the ampullary region, resulting in fertilisation. Haploid nucleus of sperm fuse with that of ovum to form diploid zygote.
  1. In female genital tract, sperms are made capable of fertilising the egg. This phenomenon of sperm activation is called:
  1. Amphimixis.
  2. Cortical reaction.
  3. Capacitation.
  4. Acrosomal reaction.
  1. Select the correct sequence of various physical and chemical events that take place during fertilisation.
  1. Fusion of cortical granules with plasma membrane of secondary oocyte.
  2. Formation of fertilisation cone to receive sperm.
  3. Release of sperm lysin from acrosome.
  4. Mixing up of chromosomes of a sperm and an ovum.
  1. R → Q → P → S
  2. Q → S → R → P
  3. Q → R → S → P
  4. R → P → Q → S
  1. Assertion: Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
Reason: The secretion of acrosome help the sperm to enter into cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida and plasma membrane.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false
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  4. Both (b) and (c).
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Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
In angiosperms, the pollen grains are being transferred from the anther to the stigma and is termed pollination. This phenomenon was first discovered by Camerarius (1694) in the end of seventeenth century. Pollen grains are immobile. They cannot reach the stigma by themselves. An external agent is required for this. The pollination is mainly of two types-self pollination and cross pollination. The diagram given below shows two plants of the same species showing different types of pollination.
  1. What is transferred between the plants in the process indicated by arrow P?
  1. Ova.
  2. Pollen.
  3. Nutrients.
  4. Seeds.
  1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding processes P, Q and R?
  1. Processes P, Q and R introduce genetic variability in the offspring of sexually reproducing plants X and Y.
  2. Wind serves as agent for process Q if plants X and Y belong to Genus Salvia.
  3. Flowers of plants X and Y need to produce odour and nectar for completion of processes P and Q if they are entomophilous.
  4. If plants X and Y belong to Genus Cannabis, then their flowers need to produce sticky and heavy pollens in very small amount for accomplishment of process Q.
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S. No
P
Q
R
(a)
Geitonogamy
Xenogamy
Autogamy
(b)
Allogamy
Chasmogamy
Cleistogamy
(c)
Autogamy
Geitonogamy
Xenogamy
(d)
Geitonogamy
Allogamy
Autogamy
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  2. Cleistogamy.
  3. Geitonogamy.
  4. Xenogamy.
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  1. P.
  2. Q.
  3. R.
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Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Enzymes are best known for their ability to catalise biochemical reactions without undergoing any change. A large number of enzymes are being used in biotechnological industry. Most of them are obtained from microbes. Proteases degrade proteins and polypeptides. Most of the commercially applicable proteases are alkaline and are biosynthesised mainly by bacteria such as Pseudomonas, Bacillus and some fungi like, Aspergillus. These enzymes are used in clearing beer, softening of bread and meat, degumming of silk, etc. Alkaline serine proteases have the largest applications in bio-industry. Alkaline proteases have shown their capability to work under high pH, temperature and in presence of inhibitory compounds. Another important group of enzymes is amylases. Amylolytic enzymes act on starch. These are obtained from Aspergillus, Rhizopus and Bacillus sp. These are used in softening and sweetening of bread, production of alcoholic beverages from starchy materials, clearing of turbidity in juices caused by starch, etc.
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  2. Proteases.
  3. Pectinases.
  4. Lipases.
  1. Amylolytic enzymes are not obtained from:
  1. Aspergillus.
  2. Aspergillus.
  3. Mucor.
  4. Bacillus.
  1. Clearing of turbidity in juices caused by starch is achieved by:
  1. Amylases.
  2. Proteases.
  3. Rennet.
  4. Both (a) and (b).
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  1. Enzymes are proteinaceous substances.
  2. Enzymes are substrate specific.
  3. Enzymes are large sized molecules.
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What is gene therapy? Illustrate using the example of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Gene manipulation is a fast emerging science. It started with development of recombinant DNA molecule. It is named variously as DNA manipulation biotechnology, recombinant DNA technology and genetic engineering. This technology, that mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments, is based on two important discoveries in bacteria, i.e., presence of plasmid in bacteria and restriction endonucleases. Paul Berg was able to introduce a gene ofSV-40 into a bacterium. The science of recombinant DNA technology took birth when Cohen and Boyer (1973) were able to introduce a piece of gene containing foreign DNA into plasmid of E.coli.
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  1. DNA manipulation biotechnology.
  2. Recombinant DNA technology.
  3. Genetic engineering.
  4. All of these.
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  1. Father of genetic engineering is:
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  2. Arber.
  3. Nathan.
  4. Smith.
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  1. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Assertion: Biotechnology started with the development of recombinant DNA molecule.

Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
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Wetlands are called Ramsar sites because the first international convention on their conservation was held in Ramsar in Iran in 1971. Wetlands or Ramsar sites are low lying marshy areas which get filled up during rains due to runoff and overflow from other water bodies. They are often considered to be waste lands which are used as dumping areas and filled up to recover land for various constructions activities. As a result, a large number of wetlands have disappeared.
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Location
(a)
Harike
Punjab
(b)
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H.P.
(c)
Bhoj
M.P.
(d)
Ashtamudi
Odisha
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  3. Harike.
  4. Chandra Tal.
  1. Which of the following is not an importance of wetlands?
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  2. They provide protection from floods.
  3. They are good source of siltation and purification of water.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following wetland ecosystem is highly acidic and has a accumulation of decomposed plants known as peat?
  1. Bog
  2. Mangrove
  3. Estuary
  4. Watershed
  1. The mangroves of Bhitarkanika are famous for:
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  2. Nesting sites for endangered olive ridley turtles.
  3. Prawn cultivation.
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Organism P has thick lips and tongue so that it can easily feed on the commonly available spiny plants. Organism Q has thick layer of insulating fat under the skin. It was strong hooves to walk steadily on steep surfaces and lives in burrows during winters. Organism R has bright colours and sticky pads on its fingers and toes. It lives on trees.
  1. Which of the following is correct habitat for organisms P regarding its adaptation?
  1. Grassland biome.
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  3. Tropical rainforest.
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  4. Desert - Camel.
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding organisms R's habitat?
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  2. Epiphytic growth is rich.
  3. Standing crop is highest.
  4. Deep rooted shrubs are common due to abundant sunlight.
  1. The dominant plants in habitat where P lives could be:
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  2. Nymphaea
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  4. B, D and A.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Pollen-pistil interaction is the group of events that occur from the time of pollen deposition over the stigma to the time of pollen tube entry into ovule. It is a dynamic process which has checks at several places for promotion or inhibition of pollen growth. Pollen-pistil interaction is a safety measure to ensure that illegitimate crossings do not occur. Compatibility and incompatibility of the pollen-pistil is determined by special proteins. The compatible pollens are able to absorb water and nutrients from the surface of the stigma. They germinate and produce pollen tubes. Pollen tubes grow into the style. Their growth and path through the style are also determined by specific chemicals.
  1. Which of the following parts of gynoecium determines the compatible nature of pollen?
  1. Stigma.
  2. Style.
  3. Ovary.
  4. Thalamus.
  1. In Triforium, which type of self-incompatibility is found?
  1. Gametophytic self-incompatibility (GSI).
  2. Sporophytic self-incompatibility (SSI).
  3. Both GSI and SSI.
  4. None of these.
  1. Select the incorrect statement.
  1. In Asteraceae, incompatibility is due to the genotype of the sporophytic stigmatic tissues.
  2. In members of Brassicaceae, incompatibility is due to the genotype of the pollen.
  3. Nature has imposed self-incompatibility to avoid highly homozygous individuals, which have a very low survival value.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following are examples of self incompatibility?
  1. Tobacco.
  2. Potato.
  3. Crucifers.
  4. All of these.
  1. Given figures show the pollen-stigma interaction, where pollen wall proteins are released onto the pellicle of stigmatic papillae, where a recognition reaction occurs.


Which of the following statements drawn from given figures is incorrect?
  1. P indicates compatible reaction in which the pollen tube penetrates the cuticle and grows down the papilla.
  2. Development of callose plug between the plasma membrane and pectocellulosic layer of stigmatic papillae results in the incompatibility reaction in Q.
  3. A callose plug, which appears at the tip of pollen in Q, is dissolved by callase enzyme secreted by stigma resulting in compatibility reaction.
  4. Deposition of callose can be employed as a reliable bioassay to detect compatibility or incompatibility reactions of pollen and stigma.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Alcohols are important industrial solvents. Ethanol, methanol, propanol and butanol are produced commercially by fermentation activity of some fungi, majorly yeasts. During fermentation, yeast cells convert cereal derived sugars into ethanol and $CO_2$ At the same time hundreds of secondary metabolites that influence the aroma and taste of alcohol are produced. Sugar concentration affects the rate of fermentation reactions. Yeast cannot grow in very strong sugar solution. In case of complex carbohydrate containing nutrient media, 1% malt or Rhizopus is used along with yeasts. Hydrolysis of starch is carried out at high temperature for 30 ruins. 'Tile crushed food mixed with hot water for obtaining malt in called mash. 'Tile nutrient medium prior to fermentation in called wort. Wort is cooled down to appropriate temperature and inoculated with strain of yeast.
  1. Tile rate of alcohol production is measured on the basis of:
  1. Amount of sugar present in the medium.
  2. Amount of $CO_2$ produced per unit time.
  3. Amount of yeast added in the medium.
  4. All of these.
  1. A number of chemicals are produced at the time of alcoholic fermentation with the change of nutrient media, pH and aeration. Select such by-product from the following.
  1. Phenylethanol.
  2. Amyl alcohol.
  3. Glycerol.
  4. All of these.
  1. During alcoholic fermentation of cereals and potato, the crushed food mixed with hot water for obtaining malt is called:
  1. Juice.
  2. Mash.
  3. Wort.
  4. None of these.
  1. Distilled alcohol with 95% ethanol content is called:
  1. Absolute alcohol.
  2. Rectified spirit.
  3. Gin.
  4. Brandy.
  1. Assertion: Rhizopus or 1% malt is used in the nutrient medium when it contains complex carbohydrates.
Reason: Yeast does not possess sufficient diastase or amylase.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.