$\text{f}(\text{x})=\cos2{\text{x}}\text{ on }[0,\pi]$
$\text{f}(\text{x})=\cos2{\text{x}}\text{ on }[0,\pi]$
We know that, cosine function is continuous and differentiable every where, so f(x) is continuous is $[0,\pi]$ and differentiable is $(0,\pi).$
Now,
$\text{f}(0)=\cos0=1$
$\text{f}(\pi)=\cos(2\pi)=1$
$\Rightarrow\text{f}(0)=\text{f}(\pi)$
So, Rolle's theorem is applicable, so there must exist a point $\text{c}\in(0,\pi)$ such that f'(c) = 0.
Now,
$\text{f}(\text{x})=\cos2\text{x}$
$\text{f}'(\text{x})=-2\sin2\text{x}$
So, $\text{f}'(\text{c})=0$
$\Rightarrow-2\sin2\text{c}=0$
$\Rightarrow\sin2\text{c}=0$
$\Rightarrow2\text{c}=0$ or $2\text{c}=\pi$
$\Rightarrow\text{c}=0$ or $\text{c}=\frac{\pi}{2}\in(0,\pi)$
Hence, Rolle's theorem is verified.
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$+ y = \cos x - \sin x.$
$\frac{\text{dy}}{\text{dx}}=\text{y}\tan\text{ x, y}(0)=1$
| o | a | b | c | d |
| a | a | a | a | a |
| b | a | b | c | d |
| c | a | c | d | b |
| d | a | d | b | c |
$\text{A}=\begin{bmatrix}2 & 1 \\5 & 3 \end{bmatrix}\text{ and B}=\begin{bmatrix}4 & 5 \\3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}$