Question 14 Marks
Answer
View full question & answer→(i) $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A}$ fails alone $)=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A})-\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})$
$
=0.20-0.15=0.05
$
(ii) $P(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B})=P(\overline{A \cup B})=1-P(A \cup B)$ $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cup \mathrm{B})=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A})+\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B})-\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})$
$=0.20+0.30-0.15=0.35$
$\therefore P(\overline{\mathrm{~A}} \cap \overline{\mathrm{~B}})=1-0.35=0.65$
(iii) $P(A \mid B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0.15}{0.30}=\frac{1}{2}=0.50$.
$
=0.20-0.15=0.05
$
(ii) $P(\bar{A} \cap \bar{B})=P(\overline{A \cup B})=1-P(A \cup B)$ $\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cup \mathrm{B})=\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A})+\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{B})-\mathrm{P}(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})$
$=0.20+0.30-0.15=0.35$
$\therefore P(\overline{\mathrm{~A}} \cap \overline{\mathrm{~B}})=1-0.35=0.65$
(iii) $P(A \mid B)=\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}=\frac{0.15}{0.30}=\frac{1}{2}=0.50$.

