MCQ 11 Mark
The function $f$ be given by $f(x)=2 x^{3}-6 x^{2}+6 x+5$.
Assertion (A): $x=1$ is not a point of local maxima.
Reason (R): $x=1$ is not a point of local minima.
Assertion (A): $x=1$ is not a point of local maxima.
Reason (R): $x=1$ is not a point of local minima.
- ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
- ✓$A$ is true but $R$ is false.
- CBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A .
- DA is false but $R$ is true.
Answer
View full question & answer→Correct option: B.
$A$ is true but $R$ is false.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A .
Explanation: We have,
$f(x)=2 x^{3}-6 x^{2}+6 x+5$
$\Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=6 x^{2}-12 x+6=6(x-1)^{2}$
and $f^{\prime \prime}(x)=12(x-1)$
Now, $f^{\prime}(x)=0$ gives $x=1$.
Also, $\mathrm{f}^{\prime \prime}(1)=0$.
Therefore, the second derivative test fails in this case.
So, we shall go back to the first derivative test.
Using first derivatives test, we get $\mathrm{x}=1$ is neither a point of local maxima nor a point of local minima and so it is a point of inflexion.
Explanation: We have,
$f(x)=2 x^{3}-6 x^{2}+6 x+5$
$\Rightarrow f^{\prime}(x)=6 x^{2}-12 x+6=6(x-1)^{2}$
and $f^{\prime \prime}(x)=12(x-1)$
Now, $f^{\prime}(x)=0$ gives $x=1$.
Also, $\mathrm{f}^{\prime \prime}(1)=0$.
Therefore, the second derivative test fails in this case.
So, we shall go back to the first derivative test.
Using first derivatives test, we get $\mathrm{x}=1$ is neither a point of local maxima nor a point of local minima and so it is a point of inflexion.