Questions

SECTION - A [ZOOLOGY - MCQ]

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45 questions · 44 auto-graded MCQ + 1 self-marked written.

MCQ 14 Marks
Statement I: The neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for a quick coordination.
Statement II: The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.
  • A
    Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • C
    Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
  • D
    Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(B)
The neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for a quick coordination. The endocrine system provides chemical integration through hormones.
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MCQ 24 Marks
Identify the incorrect statement.
  • A
    Depending on base composition (A:T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and number of repetitive units, satellite DNA is classified in micro-satellites and mini-satellites and mini-satelites etc.
  • B
    The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.
  • Polymorphisms are non-inheritable from parents to children
  • D
    DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Polymorphisms are non-inheritable from parents to children
(C)
Polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children. DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes.
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MCQ 34 Marks
Identify the statement that is not true regarding polygenic traits.
  • A
    Such traits are generally controlled by three or more genes.
  • In polygenic traits a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions.
  • C
    Besides the involvement of multiple genes it also takes into account the influence of environment.
  • D
    Human skin colour is classic example for this.
Answer
Correct option: B.
In polygenic traits a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions.
(B)
A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expression. Such a gene is called a pleiotropic gene.
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MCQ 44 Marks
Statement I: The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO), but lack PEPcase in $C _4$ plants.
Statement II: The Calvin pathway is common to the $C _3$ and $C _4$ plants.
  • Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
  • B
    Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • C
    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • D
    Statement I and and Statement II both are incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
A
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MCQ 54 Marks
  • A
    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • C
    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • D
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(B)
Logistic growth - A population growing in a habitat with limited resources.
Exponential growth - Any species growing exponentially under unlimited resource conditions can reach enormous population densities in a short time.
Expanding age pyramids - The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups.
Stable age pyramid - The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same.
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MCQ 64 Marks
The strand which does not code for anything is referred to as-
  • A
    Template strand
  • B
    Non coding strand
  • Coding strand
  • D
    More than one option is correct
Answer
Correct option: C.
Coding strand
C
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MCQ 74 Marks
Which of the following are under the control of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
C. Regulation of blood calcium level
D. Development of immune system
E. Melatonin maintains sleep wake cycle.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A, B, C and E only
  • B
    A, B and E only
  • A, B and C only
  • D
    B. C and D only.
Answer
Correct option: C.
A, B and C only
(C)
Thyroid hormones play an important role in the regulation of the basal metabolic rate. These hormones also support the process of red blood cell formation. Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones. Thyroid gland also secretes a protein hormone called thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which regulates the blood calcium levels. Melatonin plays a very important role in regulation of system of our body. It maintain sleep wake cycle, body temperature, etc. Thymus helps in development of the immune system.
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MCQ 84 Marks
Sexual behaviour and pleasure is regulated by-
  • A
    Corpus callosum and thalamus
  • Limbic system & hypothalamus
  • C
    Corpora quadrigemina & hippocampus
  • D
    Brain stem & epithalamus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Limbic system & hypothalamus
(B)
Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures like amygdala, hippocampus etc., form a complex structure called limbic system. Limbic system along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions (e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage and fear), and motivation.
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MCQ 94 Marks
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?
A. Muscle bundles are held together by collagenous connective tissue layer called fascia.
B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a store house of calcium ions.
C. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due to distribution pattern of actin and myosin proteins.
D. M line is a thin fibrous membrane.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A and C only
  • B
    A, B and C only
  • A only
  • D
    A, C and D only
Answer
Correct option: C.
A only
(C)
Fascicle (Muscle bundles) are formed by many muscle fibres and covered by perimysium and all of it held by epimysium. The thick filaments in A-band are also held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous membrane called M-line.
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MCQ 104 Marks
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. An excessive loss of body fluid from the body switches off osmoreceptors.
B. ADH cause an increase in blood pressure.
C. ANF causes vasoconstriction
D. ADH causes increase in semen volume.
E. ADH is responsible for increase in GFR.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    C, D and E only
  • B and E only
  • C
    B, C and D only
  • D
    A, B and E only
Answer
Correct option: B.
B and E only
(B)
An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate osmoreceptors which stimulate the hypothalamus to release ADH. Hence, switch on osmoreceptors. ADH cause an increase in blood pressure. An increase in blood pressure can increase the glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR.
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MCQ 114 Marks
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Basophils are least aboundant cell of the total WBCs
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Basophils are involved in allergic response
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus
E. Basophil are agranulocyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A and B only
  • B
    D and E only
  • C
    C and E only
  • D
    A, B and E only
Answer
Correct option: A.
A and B only
(A)
Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65%) of the total WBCs and basophils are the least (0.5-1%). Basophils have S-shaped nucleus. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of granulocytes.
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MCQ 124 Marks
Select the incorrect statements
A. Tetrad formation is seen during leptotene
B. During Anaphase, the centromere split and chromatids separate.
C. Terminalization takes place during Pachytene.
D. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are reformed during Telophase.
E. Crossing over takes place between non sister chromatids of homologous
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
  • A
    B and E only
  • A and C only
  • C
    B and D only
  • D
    A, C and E only
Answer
Correct option: B.
A and C only
(B)
Tetrad formation is seen during zygotene. The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis. This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes.
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MCQ 134 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During $G _1$ phase of cell cycle Initiation of DNA replication occurs.
Statement II: The centrosome undergoes duplication during M phase of interphase.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option below:
  • A
    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(D)
The cells that do not divide further exit $G _1$ phase to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage $\left( G _0\right)$ of the cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of organism.
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MCQ 144 Marks
In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-
A. Uricose glands
B. Mammillary body
C. Nephron
D. Fat body
E. Collatcrial glands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A and D only
  • B
    A and E only
  • C
    A, B and E only
  • D
    B, C and D only
Answer
Correct option: A.
A and D only
(A)
Insects like cockroach are uricotelic (excrete uric acid). In addition, the fat body, nephrocytes and urecose glands also help in excretion.
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MCQ 154 Marks

Match List-l with List-ll.

List-lList-II
(A) Mast cells(I) Ciliated epithelium
(B) Inner surface of bronchiole(II) Supportive framework for epithelium
(C) Lymph(III) Cuboidal epithelium
(D) Tubular parts of nephron(IV) Specialised connective tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • A
    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • B
    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • C
    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer
Correct option: D.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D)
Mast cells - Areolar tissue serve as support frame work for epithelium.
Inner surface of Bronchiole - Ciliated epithelium bear cilla on their free surface that help to move particles in specific direction.
Blood - Specialised connective tissues.
Tubular parts of nephrons - Cuboidal epithelium help in secretion and absorption.
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MCQ 164 Marks
Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
  • A
    Anal cerci
  • B
    movement in night.
  • Anal styles
  • D
    Sclerites
Answer
Correct option: C.
Anal styles
(C)
Anal styles are paired, short, unjointed structure present only in male and help in sexual dimorphism.
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MCQ 174 Marks
Select the incorrect statements with reference to chordates:
A. Presence of a dorsal hollow nerve Cord.
B. Presence of open circulatory system.
C. Presence of paired pharyngeal gills
D. Presence of dorsal heart
E. Triploblastic pseudocoelomate animals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    C, D and E only
  • B
    A, C and D only
  • C
    B and C only
  • B, D and E only
Answer
Correct option: D.
B, D and E only
(D)
Phylum Chordata are characterised by the presence of a notochord, a dorsal hollow nerve cord, and paired pharyngeal gill slits. These are triploblastic, coelomate with organ-system level of organisation. Vertebrates have a ventral muscular heart with two, three or four chambers.
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MCQ 184 Marks
Hairs, pinna and mammary glands are characteretically present in-
  • mammalians
  • B
    Reptilians
  • C
    Amphibians
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: A.
mammalians
(A)
The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of mammary gland (milk producing glands), skin possessing hair and presence of external ear or pinnae.
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MCQ 194 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll.
List-l
(Interacting species)
List-II
(Name of Interaction)
(A) Flamingoes and resident fishes(I) Competition
(B) Lice on humans and ticks on dogs(II) Parasitism
(C) Lichens(III) Mutualism
(D) An orchid growing on a mango branch(IV) Commensalism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • C
    A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • D
    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B
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MCQ 204 Marks
In early stages of infections, amplification of pathogenic nucleic acid can be done by all, except-
  • A
    PCR
  • B
    ELISA
  • C
    Recombinent DNA technalogy
  • Serum and urine analysis
Answer
Correct option: D.
Serum and urine analysis
(D)
Of these, serum and urine analysis does not fulfil the purpose of early diagnosis of a disease. In early stages of infections, when the disease symptoms are not visible, amplification of pathogenic nucleic acid can be done by PCR, detection of antibodies produced by host against pathogen by ELISA and rDNA technology can serve the purpose of early diagnosis.
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MCQ 214 Marks
Choose the incorrect Statement.
  • A
    BAC is a cloning vector
  • YAC is not a cloning vector
  • C
    Probe is also not a cloning vector
  • D
    None
Answer
Correct option: B.
YAC is not a cloning vector
(B)
A probe is not a cloning vector rather it is a single-stranded sequence of DNA or RNA used to search for its complementary sequence in a sample genome.
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MCQ 224 Marks
Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by-
A. Sexual Contact with infected person.
B. By transmission of Contaminated blood.
C. By Sharing infected needles
D. from infected mother to her child through sexual contact.
  • A
    A and B only
  • B
    B and C only
  • A, B and C only
  • D
    A, B, C and D all
Answer
Correct option: C.
A, B and C only
C
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MCQ 234 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll.
List-lList-II
(A) Heroin(I) Increased heart beat and blood pressure
(B) Marijuana(II) Depressent
(C) Cocaine(III) Sedative property
(D) Morphine(IV) Build up of dopamine in the synapses
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • C
    A-I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • D
    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B)
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions. Use of marijuana causes increased heartbeat and blood pressure (cardiovascular effects). Cocaine interferes with the transport of dopamine and causes build up of dopamine in the synapses. Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller.
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MCQ 244 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll.
List-lList-II
(A) Ringworm(I) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(B) Common cold(II) Epidermophyton
(C) Malaria(III) Rhine virus
(D) Pneumonia(IV) Plasmodium falciperum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • C
    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • D
    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B
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MCQ 254 Marks
Spotted Cuscus exhibits.....
  • A
    Wide adaptation
  • Adaptive radiation
  • C
    Filaria like character
  • D
    All of these
Answer
Correct option: B.
Adaptive radiation
(B)
The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive radiation. Australian marsupials exhibit this phenomenon and gave varieties of marsupials, e.g., Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger, etc.
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MCQ 264 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form nucleolus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D
    Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C)
In prokaryotes, such as, E. coli, though they do not have a defined nucleus, the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell. DNA (being negatively charged) is held with some proteins (that have positive charges) in a region termed as 'nucleoid".
The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large loops held by proteins.
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MCQ 274 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll.
List-lList-II
(A) Gene 'a'(I) $\beta-$galactosidase
(B) Gene 'y'(II) Transacetylase
(C) Lactose(III) $\beta-$galactosides
(D) Gene 'z'(IV) Repressor protein
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • B
    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • D
    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer
Correct option: C.
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C)
The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene (the i gene - here the term i does not refer to inducer, rather it is derived from the word inhibitor) and three structural genes ( $z , y$, and a ). The i gene codes for the repressor of the lac operon. The $z$ gene codes for betagalactosidase ( $\beta$-gal), which is primarily responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide, lactose into its monomeric units, galactose and glucose. The y gene codes for permease, which increases permeability of the cell to $\beta$-galactosides. The a gene encodes a transacetylase.
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MCQ 284 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: RNA mutates at a lower rate.
Statement II: Viruses having DNA genome and shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    Statement I false but Statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D
    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C)
RNA mutates at a faster rate because it is unstable. Therefore, viruses having RNA genome and shorter life span allow them to mutate and evolve at faster rates.
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MCQ 294 Marks
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from X, the disorder X was first described by-
  • Langdon Down (1866)
  • B
    Langdon Down (1875)
  • C
    Thomas Docon (1961)
  • D
    Langdon Down (1857)
Answer
Correct option: A.
Langdon Down (1866)
(A)
Down's Syndrome: The cause of this genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21 (trisomy of 21). This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). The affected individual is short statured with small round head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth. Palm is broad with characteristic palm crease. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
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MCQ 314 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll.
List-lList-II
(A) Tubectomy(I) Non steroidel pills
(B) Withdrawl(II) Barrier method
(C) Cervical caps(III) Surgical method
(D) Saheli(IV) Natural method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • B
    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • D
    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer
Correct option: C.
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(C)
Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception in males. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum. Although sperm production continues in the testes, sperm can no longer reach the exterior. The sperm degenerate and are destroyed by phagocytosis.
Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is one of the natural methods of contraception in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
Cervical caps are barriers that fit snugly over the cervix and block sperm from entering the uterus.
Saheli - the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal preparation, It is a 'once a week' pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
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MCQ 324 Marks
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Amniocentasis involves removal of some of the amniotic fluid that bathes the developing fetus and analysing the fetal cells and dissolved substances
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • C
    Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • D
    A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)
Amniocentesis involves removal of some of the amniotic foetal cells and dissolved substances. It can be done to detect genetic disorders, chromosomal abnormalities, biochemical defects, etc. It can also reveal a baby's gender Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination have been done to legally check increasing menace of female foeticides. Its application of sex determination is not one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.
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MCQ 334 Marks
Completely curable sexually transmitted diseases are
A. Gonorrhoea
B. HIV
C. Genital herpes
D. Hepatitis-B
  • A
    A, B & C only
  • B
    A, C & D only
  • C
    A & C only
  • A only
Answer
Correct option: D.
A only
(D)
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by the infection with bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Gonorrhoea can be cured with the proper treatment if detected early. HIV infections, genital herpes and hepatitis-B are incurable STDs.
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MCQ 344 Marks
Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle?
A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle.
B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menarche.
C. Lack of menstruation must be indicative of pregnancy.
D. Cyclic menstruation begins at puberty and extends throughout the life in females.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A, C and D only
  • B
    A and D only
  • A and B only
  • D
    A, B and C only
Answer
Correct option: C.
A and B only
(C)
First menstrual cycle begins at puberty is called menarche.
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MCQ 354 Marks
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst.
Reason R: In the presence of fertilization, the corpus luteum persists that causes persistance of endometrium.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • D
    A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
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MCQ 364 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the semen duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical cap which along with vagina forms birth canal.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D
    Statement I correct but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C)
Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the vas deferens. They opens into the prostatic urethra.
Cervical canal (interior of the cervix) along with vagina forms the birth canal.
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MCQ 374 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll
List-lList-Il
(A) CCK(I) Pars nervosa
(B) GIP(II) Heart
(C) ANP(III) Inhibits gastric secretion and moility
(D) Vasopressin(IV) Pancreas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • C
    A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • D
    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B)
Cholecystokinin (CCK), a hormone secreted by I-cells of the upper small intestine. It acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice, respectively.
Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is secreted by K-cells of the small intestine. It acts to decrease gastrin and gastrin dependent acid secretion from the parietal cells of the stomach (gastric glands).
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is a peptide hormone secreted by atrial wall of our heart. It decreases blood pressure.
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) causes the kidneys to return more water to the blood and thus decrease the urine volume.
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MCQ 384 Marks
Match List-l with List-ll
List-lList-Il
(A) Cartilaginous Joint(I) Do not allow any movement
(B) Pivot joint(II) Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column
(C) Fibrous Joint(III) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(D) Saddle Joint(IV) Between atlas and axis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • B
    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • D
    A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Answer
Correct option: C.
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(C)
Cartilaginous Joints - Between adjacent vertebrae in vertebral column.
Ball and socket Joint - Between humerus and pectoral girdle.
Fibrous Joint - Between flat skull bones..
Saddle Joint - Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb.
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MCQ 394 Marks
Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have longer loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have short loop of Henle.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A is false but R is true.
  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • C
    Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • D
    A is true but R is false.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B)
In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the medulla. Such nephrons are called cortical nephrons. In some of the nephrons, the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla. These nephrons are called juxta medullary nephrons.
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MCQ 404 Marks
Match List-I with List-II.
List-IList-II
(A) P-wave(I) Beginning of systole
(B) Q-wave(II) Repolarisation of ventricles
(C) QRS complex(III) Depolarisation of atria
(D) T-wave(IV) Depolarisation of ventricles
 (V) Beginning of diastole
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • C
    A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
  • D
    A-II, B-IV, C-V, D-III
Answer
Correct option: B.
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(B)
In an ECG record, three recognisable waves (P-wave, QRS complex and T-wave) appear with each heartbeat. P-wave - represents atrial depolarisation.
QRS complex - represents ventricular depolarisation.
T-wave - represents ventricular repolarisation.
Q-wave - represents initial phase of ventricular depolarisation i.e., beginning of systole.
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MCQ 414 Marks
IRV + ERV + TV represents
  • A
    Total lung capacity
  • B
    Inspiratory capacity
  • C
    Expiratory capacity
  • Vital capacity
Answer
Correct option: D.
Vital capacity
(D)
Vital Capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration. This includes ERV, TV and IRV or the maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.
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MCQ 424 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by first amino acid (N-terminal) and the right end represented by last amino acid (C-terminal)
Statement II: Adult human haemoglobin, consists of 4 subunits (two subunits of a type and two subunits of ẞ type.)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • A
    Statement I is false but statement II is true.
  • Both Statement I is and statement II is true.
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D
    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both Statement I is and statement II is true.
B
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MCQ 434 Marks
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily active state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are denatured by heat.
Statement II: When the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular structure and inhibits the activity of the enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • Statement I is false but statement II is true.
  • B
    Both Statement I is and statement II is true.
  • C
    Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • D
    Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Statement I is false but statement II is true.
A
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MCQ 444 Marks
Which of the following functions is not carried out by cytoskeleton in a cell?
A. Transportation
B. Nuclear division
C. Protein synthesis
D. Motility
E. mechanical Suppasht
Choose the most appropriate answer
  • A
    D and E only
  • B
    A, B, C and E only
  • A, B and E only
  • D
    B and C only
Answer
Correct option: C.
A, B and E only
(C)
The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in many functions such as mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell.
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MCQ 454 Marks
Which of the following are considered as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Chloroplasts
D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
  • A
    A, D and E only
  • B and D only
  • C
    A, C and E only
  • D
    A and D only
Answer
Correct option: B.
B and D only
(B)
The endomembrane system include endoplasmic reticulum (ER), golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles. Since the functions of the mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisomes are not coordinated with the above components, these are not considered as part of the endomembrane system.
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