Question 15 Marks
If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Answer
Proof: We are given a triangle $A B C$ in which a line parallel to side $BC$ intersects other two sides $AB$ and $AC$ at $D$ and $E$ respectively (see Fig. 6.10).
We need to prove that $\frac{ AD }{ DB }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$.
Let us join $BE$ and $CD$ and then draw $DM \perp AC$ and $EN \perp AB$.
Now, area of $\triangle ADE \left(=\frac{1}{2}\right.$ base $\times$ height $)=\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN$.
Recall from Class IX, that area of $\triangle ADE$ is denoted as $\operatorname{ar}( ADE )$.
So,
$\operatorname{ar}( ADE )=\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN$
Similarly,
$\operatorname{ar}( BDE )=\frac{1}{2} DB \times EN ,$
$\operatorname{ar}( ADE )=\frac{1}{2} AE \times DM \text { and } \operatorname{ar}( DEC )=\frac{1}{2} EC \times DM .$
Therefore,
$\frac{\operatorname{ar}( ADE )}{\operatorname{ar}( BDE )}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN }{\frac{1}{2} DB \times EN }=\frac{ AD }{ DB }$
and
$\frac{\operatorname{ar}( ADE )}{\operatorname{ar}( DEC )}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} AE \times DM }{\frac{1}{2} EC \times DM }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$
Note that $\triangle BDE$ and $DEC$ are on the same base $DE$ and between the same parallels $BC$ and $DE$.
So,
$\operatorname{ar}( BDE )=\operatorname{ar}( DEC )$
Therefore, from (1), (2) and (3), we have :
$\frac{ AD }{ DB }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$
Is the converse of this theorem also true (For the meaning of converse, see Appendix 1)? To examine this, let us perform the following activity:
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Proof: We are given a triangle $A B C$ in which a line parallel to side $BC$ intersects other two sides $AB$ and $AC$ at $D$ and $E$ respectively (see Fig. 6.10).
We need to prove that $\frac{ AD }{ DB }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$.
Let us join $BE$ and $CD$ and then draw $DM \perp AC$ and $EN \perp AB$.
Now, area of $\triangle ADE \left(=\frac{1}{2}\right.$ base $\times$ height $)=\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN$.
Recall from Class IX, that area of $\triangle ADE$ is denoted as $\operatorname{ar}( ADE )$.
So,
$\operatorname{ar}( ADE )=\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN$
Similarly,
$\operatorname{ar}( BDE )=\frac{1}{2} DB \times EN ,$
$\operatorname{ar}( ADE )=\frac{1}{2} AE \times DM \text { and } \operatorname{ar}( DEC )=\frac{1}{2} EC \times DM .$
Therefore,
$\frac{\operatorname{ar}( ADE )}{\operatorname{ar}( BDE )}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} AD \times EN }{\frac{1}{2} DB \times EN }=\frac{ AD }{ DB }$
and
$\frac{\operatorname{ar}( ADE )}{\operatorname{ar}( DEC )}=\frac{\frac{1}{2} AE \times DM }{\frac{1}{2} EC \times DM }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$
Note that $\triangle BDE$ and $DEC$ are on the same base $DE$ and between the same parallels $BC$ and $DE$.
So,
$\operatorname{ar}( BDE )=\operatorname{ar}( DEC )$
Therefore, from (1), (2) and (3), we have :
$\frac{ AD }{ DB }=\frac{ AE }{ EC }$
Is the converse of this theorem also true (For the meaning of converse, see Appendix 1)? To examine this, let us perform the following activity:



