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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
For a common emitter configuration, if 'α' and 'β' have their usual meanings, the correct relationship between 'α' and 'β' is ______.
  • $\frac{1}{\alpha}=\frac{1}{\beta}+1$
  • B
    $\alpha=\frac{\beta}{1-\beta}$
  • C
    $\alpha=\frac{\beta^2}{1+\beta^2}$
  • D
    $\alpha=\frac{1-\beta}{\beta}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{1}{\alpha}=\frac{1}{\beta}+1$
A
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MCQ 21 Mark
Which of the following regions of a transistors are, respectively, heavily dopped and lightly dopped?
  • A
    Emitter and collector
  • B
    Collector and emitter
  • C
    Base and emitter
  • Emitter and base
Answer
Correct option: D.
Emitter and base
D
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MCQ 31 Mark
In Bohr model$,$ speed of electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is $........ \ (b =$ Planck's constant$, n =$ principal quantum number$, \in _0$ is the permittivity of free space$, e =$ electronic charge$)$
  • $\frac{ e ^2}{2 \epsilon_0 hn }$
  • B
    $\frac{ e ^2}{\epsilon_0 hn }$
  • C
    $\frac{ e }{2 \in_0 hn }$
  • D
    $\frac{ e }{\epsilon_0 hn }$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{ e ^2}{2 \epsilon_0 hn }$
$\frac{ e ^2}{2 \epsilon_0 hn }$
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MCQ 41 Mark
An electron of mass $'m\ '$ is rotating in first Bohr orbit of radius $'r\ '$ in hydrogen atom. The orbital acceleration of the electron in first orbit $(h =$ Planck's constant$)$.
  • $h^2/4\pi ^2m^2r^2$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $h^2/2\pi ^2m^2r^2$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $h/4 \pi ^2mr^2$​​​​​​​
  • D
    $h/2 \pi ^2$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: A.
$h^2/4\pi ^2m^2r^2$​​​​​​​
$h^2/4\pi ^2m^2r^2$
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MCQ 51 Mark
When the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from fourth Bohr orbit to second Bohr orbit, one gets the ______.
  • second line of Balmer series
  • B
    second line of Paschen series
  • C
    first line of Balmer series
  • D
    first line of fund series
Answer
Correct option: A.
second line of Balmer series
A
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MCQ 61 Mark
The work function of a substance is $4.0 \ eV$. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photo$-$emission from this substance is approximately $(h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} Js)[1eV = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} J]$
  • A
    $400 \ nm$
  • $310 \ nm$
  • C
    $540\  nm$
  • D
    $220 \ nm$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$310 \ nm$
$310 \ nm$
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MCQ 71 Mark
Light of different frequencies, whose photons have energies 3 eV and 18 eV respectively, successively illuminate a metal of work function 2 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons will be ______.
  • A
    5 : 1
  • B
    1 : 5
  • 1 : 4
  • D
    2 : 1
Answer
Correct option: C.
1 : 4
C
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MCQ 81 Mark
A metal surface is illuminated by light of given intensity and frequency to cause photoemission. If the intensity of illumination is reduced to one-fourth of its original value then the maximum KE of the emitted photoelectrons would be ______.
  • unchanged
  • B
    four times the original value
  • C
    twice the original value
  • D
    one-fourth of the original value
Answer
Correct option: A.
unchanged
A
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MCQ 91 Mark
$\text{L-C-R}$ series circuit contains a resistance of $10 \Omega $ and self$-$inductance $0.4 H$ connected in series with variable capacitor across $60 V$ and $50\  Hz$ supply. The value of capacity at resonance will be $\pi ^2 = 10.$
  • A
    $24\  \mu F$
  • B
    $26\  \mu F$
  • C
    $22 \ \mu F$
  • $25\  \mu F$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$25\  \mu F$
$25\  \mu F$
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MCQ 101 Mark
A coil of radius 'r' is placed on another coil (whose radius is 'R' and current flowing through it is changing) so that their centres coincide. (R>>r) if both the coils are coplanar then the mutual inductance between them is proportional to ______.
  • $\frac{ r ^2}{ R }$
  • B
    $\frac{ R }{ r }$
  • C
    $\frac{ r }{ R }$
  • D
    $\frac{ R }{ r ^2}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{ r ^2}{ R }$
A
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MCQ 111 Mark
An alternating current of frequency 200 rad/s and peak value 1 A is applied to the primary of a transformer. If the coefficient of mutual induction between the primary and the secondary is 1.5H, then the voltage induced in the secondary will be approximately (π = 2217)
  • A
    471 V
  • B
    300 V
  • 191 V
  • D
    220 V
Answer
Correct option: C.
191 V
C
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MCQ 121 Mark
If a magnetic field is applied to a liquid in one arm of a narrow U-tube, the liquid level in that arm is lowered. The liquid in U-tube arm is ______.
  • A
    paramagnetic
  • B
    non-magnetic
  • C
    ferro-magnetic
  • diamagnetic
Answer
Correct option: D.
diamagnetic
D
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MCQ 131 Mark
Magnetic material can be easily magnetized if magnetic susceptibility is ______.
  • A
    very low and positive
  • very high and positive
  • C
    very high and negative
  • D
    very low and negative
Answer
Correct option: B.
very high and positive
B
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MCQ 141 Mark
The magnetization of bar magnet of length $5 \ cm,$ cross$-$sectional area $2 \ cm^2$ and net magnetic moment $1 \ Am^2$ is $.........$
  • A
    $2 \times 10^5 A/m$
  • B
    $3 \times 10^5 A/m$
  • C
    $4 \times 10^5 A/m$
  • $1 \times 10^5 A/m$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$1 \times 10^5 A/m$
$1 \times 10^5 A/m$
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MCQ 151 Mark
The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point on the axis at a large distance (r) from the centre of a circular coil of 'n' turns and area 'A' carrying current (l) is given by ______.
  • A
    $B _{ axis }=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{ nlA }{ r ^3}$
  • $B _{\text {axis }}=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 nlA }{ r ^3}$
  • C
    $B _{\text {axis }}=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{ nA }{ Ir ^3}$
  • D
    $B _{\text {axis }}=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 nl }{ Ar ^3}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$B _{\text {axis }}=\frac{\mu_0}{4 \pi} \cdot \frac{2 nlA }{ r ^3}$
B
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MCQ 161 Mark
A proton enters into a magnetic field of induction $1.732 T$, with a velocity of $10^7 m / s$ at an angle $60^{\circ}$ to the field. The force acting on the proton is e $=1.6 \times 10^{-19} C , \sin 60^{\circ}=\cos 30^{\circ}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}$
  • A
    $3.2 \times 10^{-12} N$
  • $2.4 \times 10^{-12} N$
  • C
    $4.0 \times 10^{-12} N$
  • D
    $1.6 \times 10^{-12} N$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$2.4 \times 10^{-12} N$
$2.4 \times 10^{-12} N$
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MCQ 171 Mark
Figure show the circular coil carrying current I kept very close but not touching at a point. A on a straight conductor carrying the same current l. The magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of the circular coil will be.
Image
  • A
    $\frac{\mu_0 l}{2 \pi r }$
  • B
    $\frac{\mu_0 l}{2 r }$
  • C
    $\frac{\mu_0 l}{2 r }\left(1+\frac{1}{\pi}\right)$
  • None of above
Answer
Correct option: D.
None of above
D
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MCQ 181 Mark
The potential difference between the points A and B in the electric circuit shown is ______.
Image
  • A
    1 V
  • B
    $\frac{1}{3} V$
  • C
    $\frac{1}{3} V$
  • $\frac{4}{5} V$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{4}{5} V$
D
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MCQ 191 Mark
Which of the following is the dimensional formula for electric polarisation?
  • A
    $[M^0 L^{-2} T^1 l^1]$
  • B
    $[M^1 L^{-2} T^1 l^{-1}]$
  • $[M^0 L^{-2} T^1 l^1]$
  • D
    $[M^0 L^{-1} T^1 l^1]$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$[M^0 L^{-2} T^1 l^1]$
$[M^0 L^{-2} T^1 l^1]$
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MCQ 201 Mark
In air, a charged soap bubble of radius 'R' breaks into 27 small soap bubbles of equal radius 'r '. Then the ratio of mechanical force acting per unit area of big soap bubble to that of a small soap bubble is ______.
  • A
    $\frac{1}{81}$
  • B
    $\frac{9}{1}$
  • $\frac{1}{3}$
  • D
    $\frac{3}{1}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\frac{1}{3}$
C
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MCQ 211 Mark
A particle of mass 'm' having charge 'q' is held at rest in uniform electric field of intensity 'E'. When it is released, the kinetic energy attained by it after covering a distance 'y' will be ______.
  • Eqy
  • B
    mEqy
  • C
    $\frac{ mE }{ q } y$
  • D
    $\frac{\text { mqy }}{ E _1}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
Eqy
A
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MCQ 221 Mark
A capacitor of capacitance $'C_1\ '$ is charged upto potential $'\ V\ '$ and is then disconnected from the battery. It is then connected to uncharged capacitor, in parallel, whose capacitance is $'C_2\ '$. The potential difference across each capacitor is $........$
  • $\frac{\text { mqy }}{E_1}$
  • B
    $\frac{ C _1+ C _2}{ C _1 V }$
  • C
    $\frac{ C _2 V }{ C _1+ C _2}$
  • D
    $\frac{ C _1+ C _2}{ C _2 V }$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{\text { mqy }}{E_1}$
$\frac{\text { mqy }}{E_1}$
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MCQ 231 Mark
If the two slits in Young's double slit experiment have width ratio 9 : 1, the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is ______.
  • 4 : 1
  • B
    1 : 4
  • C
    2 : 1
  • D
    1 : 2
Answer
Correct option: A.
4 : 1
A
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MCQ 241 Mark
The phenomenon of interference is based on ______.
  • A
    quantum nature of light
  • B
    conservation of charge
  • C
    conservation of momentum
  • conservation of energy
Answer
Correct option: D.
conservation of energy
D
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MCQ 251 Mark
Light of wavelength 'λ' is incident on a single slit of width 'a' and the distance between slit and screen is 'D'. In diffraction pattern, if slit width is equal to the width of the central maximum then 'D' is equal to ______.
  • A
    $\frac{ a ^2}{\lambda}$
  • B
    $\frac{ a }{\lambda}$
  • $\frac{ a ^2}{2 \lambda}$
  • D
    $\frac{a}{2 \lambda}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\frac{ a ^2}{2 \lambda}$
C
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MCQ 261 Mark
A pipe open at both ends and a pipe closed at one end have same length. The ratio of frequencies of their $p^{th}$ overtone is $.......$
  • $\frac{2(p+1)}{2 p+1}$
  • B
    $\frac{p+1}{2 p}$
  • C
    $\frac{p+1}{2 p+1}$
  • D
    $\frac{p}{2 p+1}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{2(p+1)}{2 p+1}$
$\frac{2(p+1)}{2 p+1}$
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MCQ 271 Mark
A stretched wire of length 260 cm is set into vibrations. It is divided into three segments whose frequencies are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Their lengths must be ______.
  • 120 cm, 80 cm, 60 cm
  • B
    60 cm, 80 cm, 120 cm
  • C
    80 cm, 60 cm, 120 cm
  • D
    120 cm, 60 cm, 80 cm
Answer
Correct option: A.
120 cm, 80 cm, 60 cm
A
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MCQ 281 Mark
A set of 25 tuning forks is arranged in order of decreasing frequencies. Each fork produces 3 beats with succeeding one. If the first fork is octave of last, then the frequency of 1st and 15th fork in Hz is ______.
  • A
    72, 99
  • 144, 102
  • C
    72, 102
  • D
    144, 99
Answer
Correct option: B.
144, 102
B
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MCQ 291 Mark
The ratio of kinetic energy to the potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. at a distance equal to (1/3)rd of its amplitude is ______.
  • 8 : 1
  • B
    2 : 1
  • C
    9 : 1
  • D
    3 : 1
Answer
Correct option: A.
8 : 1
A
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MCQ 301 Mark
A person measures a time period of a simple pendulum inside a stationary lift and finds it to be $T$. If the lift starts accelerating upwards with an acceleration $\left(\frac{ g }{3}\right)$, the time period of the pendulum will be
  • $\frac{p}{2 p+1} \frac{p}{2 p+1}$
  • B
    $\frac{ T }{3}$
  • C
    $\frac{ T }{\sqrt{3}}$
  • D
    $\sqrt{3} T$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{p}{2 p+1} \frac{p}{2 p+1}$
A
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MCQ 311 Mark
Two pendulums begin to swing simultaneously. The first pendulum makes nine full oscillations when the other makes seven. The ratio of the lengths of the two pendulums is ______.
  • A
    $\frac{64}{81}$
  • B
    $\frac{7}{9}$
  • C
    $\frac{8}{9}$
  • $\frac{49}{81}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{49}{81}$
D
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MCQ 321 Mark
If \alpha is the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator and $'Q_1\ '$ is heat released to the hot reservoir, then the heat extracted from the cold reservoir $'Q_2\ '$ is $.....$
  • A
    $\frac{\alpha-1}{\alpha} Q _1$
  • B
    $\frac{\alpha Q _1}{\alpha-1}$
  • C
    $\frac{1+\alpha}{\alpha} Q _1$
  • $\frac{\alpha Q _1}{1+\alpha}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{\alpha Q _1}{1+\alpha}$
$\frac{\alpha Q _1}{1+\alpha}$
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MCQ 331 Mark
A perfect gas of $'N\ '$ molecules, each of mass $'m\ ',$ moving with velocities $'C_1', 'C_2', ...... .'C_N\ '$ is enclosed in a cubical vessel of volume $'V\ '.$ The pressure exerted by the gas on the walls of the vessel is $.......... ('p' =$ density of gas $)$
  • $\frac{1}{3} \rho \overline{ C }^2$
  • B
    $\frac{1}{3} \frac{ mN }{ V } C _{ RMS }$
  • C
    $\frac{1}{3} \frac{ m }{ V } C _{ RMS }^2$
  • D
    $\frac{1}{2} \rho \overline{ C }^2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$\frac{1}{3} \rho \overline{ C }^2$
$\frac{1}{3} \rho \overline{ C }^2$
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MCQ 341 Mark
The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a gas is u, If the temperature is doubled and the molecules dissociates into two atoms, the rms speed will be ______.
  • 2u
  • B
    u
  • C
    $u \sqrt{2}$
  • D
    4u
Answer
Correct option: A.
2u
A
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MCQ 351 Mark
A capillary tube is vertically immersed in water, water raises upto height ' $h_1{ }^{\prime}$. When the whole arrangement is taken upto depth ' $d$ ' in a mine, the water level rises upto height ' $h_2$ '. The ratio of $\frac{h_1}{h_2}$ is . ( $R=$ radius of earth)
  • A
    $\left(1-\frac{2 D}{R}\right)$
  • B
    $\left(1+\frac{2 D }{ R }\right)$
  • $\left(1-\frac{ d }{ R }\right)$
  • D
    $\left(1+\frac{ d }{ R }\right)$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\left(1-\frac{ d }{ R }\right)$
C
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MCQ 361 Mark
A molecule of water on the surface experiences a net ______.
  • A
    upward resultant unbalanced cohesive force
  • B
    upward resultant unbalanced adhesive force
  • downward resultant unbalanced cohesive force
  • D
    downward resultant unbalanced adhesive force
Answer
Correct option: C.
downward resultant unbalanced cohesive force
C
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MCQ 371 Mark
In hydraulic press, the diameters of piston in smaller cylinder and larger cylinder are $'d_1\ '$ and $'d_2\ '$ respectively. If $'F_1\ '$ is the force applied on smaller piston, the force $'F_2\ '$ on the larger piston is $.......$
  • A
    $F _2=\left(\frac{ d _1}{ d _2}\right)^2 \frac{1}{ F _1}$
  • B
    $F _2=\left(\frac{ d _1}{ d _2}\right)^2 F _1$
  • C
    $F _2=\left(\frac{ d _2}{ d _1}\right)^2 \frac{1}{ F _1}$
  • $F _2=\left(\frac{ d _2}{ d _1}\right)^2 F _1$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$F _2=\left(\frac{ d _2}{ d _1}\right)^2 F _1$
$F _2=\left(\frac{ d _2}{ d _1}\right)^2 F _1$
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MCQ 381 Mark
Earth revolves round the sun in a circular orbit of radius $'R\ '.$ The angular momentum of the revolving earth is directly proprtional to $.......$
  • A
    $R^2$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $R^3$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $R$
  • $\sqrt{ R }$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\sqrt{ R }$
$\sqrt{ R }$
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MCQ 391 Mark
A wheel of moment of inertia $2 \ kg\  m^2$ is rotating at a speed of $25 \ rad/s$. Due to friction on the axis, it comes to rest in $10$ minutes. Total work done by friction is $.......$
  • $625 J$
  • B
    $50 J$
  • C
    $25 J$
  • D
    $600 J$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$625 J$
$625 J$
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MCQ 401 Mark
When a $12000$ joule of work is done on a flywheel, its frequency of rotation increases from $10 \ Hz$ to $20 \ Hz.$ The moment of inertia of flywheel about its axis of rotation is $ ......... (\pi ^2 = 10)$
  • A
    $1 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
  • $2 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $1.5 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
  • D
    $1.688 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: B.
$2 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
$2 \ kgm^2$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 411 Mark
Assuming that the junction diode is ideal, the current in the arrangement shown in
Image
  • 20 mA
  • B
    30 mA
  • C
    10 mA
  • D
    40 mA
Answer
Correct option: A.
20 mA
A
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MCQ 421 Mark
The equiconvex lens has a focal length 'f'. If the lens is cut along the line perpendicular to principal axis and passing through the pole, what will be the focal length of any half part?
  • A
    f
  • B
    $\frac{ f }{2}$
  • 2f
  • D
    $\frac{3 f }{2}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
2f
C
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MCQ 431 Mark
Which one of the following is $\text{NOT}$ the correct formula for refractive index of glass $w.r.t.$ air $(_a\mu _g) (i =$ angle of incidence$, r =$ angle of refraction$)$
  • $a \mu g =\frac{\lambda_{\text {air }}}{\lambda_{\text {glass }}}$
  • B
    $a \mu g =\frac{\lambda_{\text {glass }}}{\lambda_{\text {air }}}$
  • C
    $a \mu g=\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}$
  • D
    $a \mu g=\frac{V_{\text {glass }}}{V_{\text {air }}}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$a \mu g =\frac{\lambda_{\text {air }}}{\lambda_{\text {glass }}}$
$a \mu g =\frac{\lambda_{\text {air }}}{\lambda_{\text {glass }}}$
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MCQ 441 Mark
An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. The percentage increase in the apparent frequency heard by the observer will be ______.
  • A
    10%
  • B
    0.5%
  • C
    5%
  • 20%
Answer
Correct option: D.
20%
D
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MCQ 451 Mark
A hot body at a temperature $'\ T\ '$ is kept in a surrounding of temperature $'\ T_0\ '$. It takes time $'\ t_1\ '$ to cool from $'\ T\ '$ to $'\ T_2\ ',$ time $t_2$ to cool from $'\ T_2\ '$ to $'\ T_3\ '$ and time $'\ t_3\ '$ to cool from $'\ T_3\ '$ to $'\ T_4\ '$. If $(T - T_2) = (T_2 - T_3) = (T_3 - T_4),$ then $......$
  • A
    $t_1 > t_2 > t_3$
  • B
    $t_1 = t_2 = t_3$
  • $t_3 > t_2 > t_1$
  • D
    $t_1 > t_2 = t_3$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$t_3 > t_2 > t_1$
$t_3 > t_2 > t_1$
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MCQ 461 Mark
A clock 'S' is working on oscillations of a spring and a clock 'P' is working on pendulum motion. Both clocks are running at the same rate on earth. What will happen to their functioning on a planet which has the same density as that of earth, but the radius is twice that of earth?
  • A
    both will run at the same rate, but not the same as on earth
  • 'S' will run faster than 'P'
  • C
    both will run at the same rate as on the earth
  • D
    P will run faster than S
Answer
Correct option: B.
'S' will run faster than 'P'
B
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MCQ 471 Mark
The mass of a body on the surface of the earth is $10 kg$. The mass of the same body on the surface on the moon is $g _{ m }=\frac{1}{6} g _{ e ^{\prime}}$ where $g _{ m ^{\prime}} g _{ e }$ acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon and the earth respectively.
  • A
    20 kg
  • 10 kg
  • C
    5 kg
  • D
    15 kg
Answer
Correct option: B.
10 kg
B
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MCQ 481 Mark
If bullet of mass $'m_1\ '$ is fired from a gun of mass $'m_2\ '$ with a speed of $'V_1\ '$, then the recoil velocity of gun is $.......$
  • $-\frac{m_1 V_1}{m_2}$
  • B
    $-\frac{ m _1}{ m _2 V _1}$
  • C
    $-\frac{m_2}{m_1 V_1}$
  • D
    $-\frac{m_2 V_1}{m_1}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$-\frac{m_1 V_1}{m_2}$
$-\frac{m_1 V_1}{m_2}$
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MCQ 491 Mark
A block of mass Mis pulled along a smooth horizontal surface with a rope of mass m by force F. The acceleration of the block will be ______.
  • A
    $\frac{ F }{( M - m )}$
  • B
    $\frac{ F }{ M }$
  • C
    $\frac{ F }{ m }$
  • $\frac{ F }{( M + m )}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\frac{ F }{( M + m )}$
D
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MCQ 501 Mark
A body of mass $m$ is performing a $\text{UCM}$ in a circle of radius $r$ with speed $v$. The work done by the centripetal force in moving it through $\left(\frac{2}{3}\right) rd$ of the circular path is
  • A
    $\frac{2 m v^2 \pi}{3}$
  • zero
  • C
    $mv^2\pi r$
  • D
    $\frac{2 \pi m v^2 r}{3}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
zero
zero
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MCQ 511 Mark
Novolac is obtained from ____________.
  • A
    Melamine and formaldehyde
  • Phenol and formaldehyde
  • C
    Tetrafluroethylene
  • D
    Phenol
Answer
Correct option: B.
Phenol and formaldehyde
B
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MCQ 521 Mark
Which among the following polymer does not show cross-linking in it?
  • A
    Vulcanised Rubber
  • B
    Bakelite
  • C
    Melamine
  • Nylon-6
Answer
Correct option: D.
Nylon-6
D
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which of the following polymer is used in paints?
  • A
    Melamine
  • B
    Buna-S
  • Novolac
  • D
    Gutta percha
Answer
Correct option: C.
Novolac
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Which of the following is not present in DNA?
  • A
    Guanine
  • B
    Thymine
  • Uracil
  • D
    Adenine
Answer
Correct option: C.
Uracil
C
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MCQ 551 Mark
Which of the following molecules from a zwitter ion?
  • A
    $CH_3CH_2COOH$
  • $H_2NCH_2COOH$
  • C
    $CH_3COOCH_3$
  • D
    $CH_3COC_2H_5$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$H_2NCH_2COOH$
$H_2NCH_2COOH$
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MCQ 561 Mark
Replacement of diazo group by Cl using cuprous chloride is known as ____________.
  • A
    Wurtz reaction
  • B
    Swarts reaction
  • C
    Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  • Sandmeyer's reaction
Answer
Correct option: D.
Sandmeyer's reaction
D
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MCQ 571 Mark
The reduction of alkyl cyanide with sodium and ethanol to give primary amines is, ____________.
  • A
    Rosenmund reduction
  • B
    Clemmensen reduction
  • Mendius reduction
  • D
    Stephen reduction
Answer
Correct option: C.
Mendius reduction
C
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MCQ 581 Mark
Hinsberg's reagent is ______.
  • A
    sodium benzene sulphonate
  • benzene sulphonyl chloride
  • C
    benzene sulphonic acid
  • D
    benzene sulphonamide
Answer
Correct option: B.
benzene sulphonyl chloride
B
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MCQ 591 Mark
In the reaction, $C _6 H _5 COCH _3 \frac{[ H ]}{ Zn-Hg/ \text {conc } \cdot \mathrm { HCl } } XX$ is
  • A
    benzylalcohol
  • B
    methyl benzene
  • ethyl benzene
  • D
    toluene
Answer
Correct option: C.
ethyl benzene
C
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MCQ 601 Mark
The reducing agent preferred to convert carboxylic acids and esters to primary alcohols is $ .......$
  • A
    $H_2/Ni$
  • $LiAIH_4$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $Na-Hg/H_2O$
  • D
    $NaBH_4$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: B.
$LiAIH_4$​​​​​​​
$LiAIH_4$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 611 Mark
Which of the following does not give yellow solid on treatment with sodium hypoiodlte?
  • A
    Pentan-2-one
  • B
    Ethanal
  • C
    Acetophenone
  • Pentan-3-one
Answer
Correct option: D.
Pentan-3-one
D
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MCQ 621 Mark
IUPAC name of Catechol is ____________.
  • A
    4-Methyl phenol
  • B
    Benzene-1, 3-diol
  • Benzene-1, 2-diol
  • D
    4-Hydroxy benzaldehyde
Answer
Correct option: C.
Benzene-1, 2-diol
C
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MCQ 631 Mark
The conversion of 2-methylpropan-1-ol to 2-methylpropan-2-ol is ______.
  • rearrangement reaction
  • B
    substitution reaction
  • C
    elimination reaction
  • D
    addition reaction
Answer
Correct option: A.
rearrangement reaction
A
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MCQ 641 Mark
How many metameric ethers are represented by the molecular formula $C_4H_{10}O$ ?
  • $3$
  • B
    $2$
  • C
    $5$
  • D
    $4$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$3$
$3$
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MCQ 651 Mark
Nicol's prism is made of $.........$
  • A
    $CaSO_4$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $Ca_3(PO_4)_2$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $CaSiO_3$​​​​​​​
  • $CaCO_3$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: D.
$CaCO_3$​​​​​​​
$CaCO_3$​​​​​​​
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MCQ 661 Mark
Which among the following compounds in crystalline form is used for making Nicol's prism?
  • $CaCO_3$
  • B
    $CaSO_4$
  • C
    $Na_2AIF_6$
  • D
    $Al_2O_3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$CaCO_3$
$CaCO_3$
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MCQ 671 Mark
The complex ions $[Co(H_2O)_5(ONO)]^{2+}$ and $[Co(H_2O)_5NO_2]^{2+}$ are $........$
  • linkage isomers
  • B
    geometrical isomers
  • C
    coordination isomers
  • D
    ionization isomers
Answer
Correct option: A.
linkage isomers
linkage isomers
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MCQ 681 Mark
IUPAC name of the complex $Ba \left( CuCl _4\right)$ is ______.
  • A
    tetrachlorobariumcuprate (III)
  • B
    tetrachlorobarium copper (II)
  • C
    barium tetrachlorocuprate (III)
  • barium tetrachlorocuprate (II)
Answer
Correct option: D.
barium tetrachlorocuprate (II)
D
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MCQ 691 Mark
Which among the following is a neutral complex?
  • $[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$
  • B
    $[Ni(NH_3)_6]Cl_2$
  • C
    $K[Ag(CN)_2]$
  • D
    $[Fe(H_2O)_6]Cl_3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$
$[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$
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MCQ 701 Mark
Which of the following is not the mineral of iron?
  • A
    Limonite
  • B
    Haematite
  • Corundum
  • D
    Magnetite
Answer
Correct option: C.
Corundum
C
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MCQ 711 Mark
Which among the following substances is used as a catalyst for thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate?
  • A
    $V_2O_5$
  • B
    $CuCl_2$
  • C
    $Fe$
  • $MnO_2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$MnO_2$
$MnO_2$
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MCQ 721 Mark
The ionic charges of manganate and permanganate ion are respectively.
  • -2, -1
  • B
    -2, -2
  • C
    -1, -2
  • D
    -1, -1
Answer
Correct option: A.
-2, -1
A
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MCQ 731 Mark
The shape of $BrF_5$ molecule is $........$
  • A
    trigonal bipyramidal
  • square pyramidal
  • C
    trigonal pyramidal
  • D
    square planar
Answer
Correct option: B.
square pyramidal
square pyramidal
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MCQ 741 Mark
Arrange the following in the increasing order of their acidic strength.
  • A
    HBr < HI < HF < HCI
  • B
    HCl < HBr < HI < HF
  • HF < HCI < HBr < HI
  • D
    HI < HBr < HCl < HF
Answer
Correct option: C.
HF < HCI < HBr < HI
C
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MCQ 751 Mark
The oxidation state of sulphur in $H_2S_2O_7$ is $.......$
  • A
    $+ 5$
  • B
    $+ 4$
  • C
    $+ 7$
  • $+ 6$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$+ 6$
$+ 6$
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MCQ 761 Mark
Consider the reaction $2 A+2 B \longrightarrow C+2 D$, if concentration of $A$ is doubled at constant $[B]$, rate increases by a factor $4$ . If concentration $B$ is doubled at constant $[A]$ the rate is doubled. Rate law of the reaction is
  • A
    rate $= k[A]^2 [B]^2$​​​​​​​
  • B
    rate $= k[A] [B]^2$​​​​​​​​​​​​​​
  • C
    rate $= k[A] [B]$
  • rate $= k[A]^2 [B]$
Answer
Correct option: D.
rate $= k[A]^2 [B]$
rate $= k[A]^2 [B]$
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MCQ 771 Mark
For the elementary reaction,
$
3 H _{2(g)}+ N _{2(g)} \longrightarrow 2 NH _{3(g)}
$
identify the correct relation among the following relations.
  • A
    $\frac{ d \left[ NH _{3( g )}\right]}{ dt }=\frac{-1}{3} \frac{ d \left[ H _{2( g )}\right]}{ dt }$
  • B
    $\frac{-3}{2} \frac{ d \left[ H _{2( g )}\right]}{ dt }=\frac{ d \left[ NH _{3( g )}\right]}{ dt }$
  • $\frac{-2}{3} \frac{ d \left[ H _{2( g )}\right]}{ dt }=\frac{ d \left[ NH _{3( g )}\right]}{ dt }$
  • D
    $\frac{- d \left[ H _{2( g )}\right]}{ dt }=\frac{ d \left[ NH _{3( g )}\right]}{ dt }$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$\frac{-2}{3} \frac{ d \left[ H _{2( g )}\right]}{ dt }=\frac{ d \left[ NH _{3( g )}\right]}{ dt }$
C
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MCQ 781 Mark
Which among the following reaction is an example of a zero order reaction?
  • A
    $C _{12} H _{22} O _{11( aq )}+ H _2 O _{( l )} \longrightarrow C _6 H _{12} O _{6( aq )}+ C _6 H _{12} O _{6( aq )}$
  • $2 NH _{3( g )} \xrightarrow{ Pt } N _{2( g )}+3 H _2$
  • C
    $H _{2( g )}+ I _{2( g )} \longrightarrow 2 HI _{( g )}$
  • D
    $2 H _2 O _{2( l )} \longrightarrow 2 H _2 O _{( l )}+ O _{2( g )}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$2 NH _{3( g )} \xrightarrow{ Pt } N _{2( g )}+3 H _2$
B
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MCQ 791 Mark
In $H_2–O_2$ fuel cell, the reaction taking place at negative electrode is :
  • $2 H _{2( g )}+4 OH _{( aq )}^{-} \longrightarrow 4 H _2 O _{( l )}+4 e ^{-}$
  • B
    $2 H _{2( g )}+2 OH _{( aq )}^{-} \longrightarrow 2 H _2 O _{( l )}+2 e ^{-}$
  • C
    $O _{2( g )}+2 H _2 O _{( l )} \longrightarrow 4 OH _{( aq )}^{-}$
  • D
    $4 OH _{( aq )}^{-} \longrightarrow O _{2( g )}+2 H _2 O _{( l )}+4 e ^{-}$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$2 H _{2( g )}+4 OH _{( aq )}^{-} \longrightarrow 4 H _2 O _{( l )}+4 e ^{-}$
$2 H _{2( g )}+4 OH _{( aq )}^{-} \longrightarrow 4 H _2 O _{( l )}+4 e ^{-}$
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MCQ 801 Mark
Calculate E.M.F. of following cell at $298 KZn _{(s)}\left| ZnSO _4(0.01 M )\right|\left| CuSO _4(1.0 M )\right| Cu u_{(s)}$ if $E_{\text {cell }}^0$ $=2.0 V$.
  • A
    1.0508 V
  • 2.0592 V
  • C
    2.0296 V
  • D
    2.0 V
Answer
Correct option: B.
2.0592 V
B
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MCQ 811 Mark
The resistance of $\frac{1}{10} \ M$ solution is $2.5 \times 10^3\ ohm$. What is the molar conductivity of solution? $($cell constant $=1.25 \ cm ^{-1})$.
  • A
    $2.5\  ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
  • $5.0 \ ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
  • C
    $2.0 \ ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
  • D
    $3.5 \ ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$5.0 \ ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
$5.0 \ ohm^{-1} \ cm^2 mol^{-1}$
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MCQ 821 Mark
For a reaction to be non-spontaneous at all temperatures, values of ΔH and ΔS respectively are ____________.
  • A
    negative, negative
  • positive, negative
  • C
    positive, positive
  • D
    negative, positive
Answer
Correct option: B.
positive, negative
B
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MCQ 831 Mark
Based on first law of thermodynamics which of the following is correct.
  • for an isobaric process, $Q_P = \triangle U + W$
  • B
    for an isochoric process, $\triangle U = - Q_v$
  • C
    for an adiabatic process, $\triangle U = - W$
  • D
    for an isothermal process, $Q = + W$
Answer
Correct option: A.
for an isobaric process, $Q_P = \triangle U + W$
for an isobaric process, $Q_P = \triangle U + W$
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MCQ 841 Mark
Three moles of an ideal gas are expanded isothermally from a volume of $300 \ cm^3$ to $2.5 L$ at $300 K$ against a pressure of $1.9 \ atm$. The work done in joules is $.........$
  • A
    $+ 4.8 J$
  • $- 423.56 J$
  • C
    $- 4.18 J$
  • D
    $+ 423.56 J$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$- 423.56 J$
$- 423.56 J$
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MCQ 851 Mark
The elevation in boiling point of $0.25$ molal aqueous solution of a substance is$........(K_b = 0.52 K \ kg \ mol^{-1})$
  • $0.13 K$
  • B
    $2.08 K$
  • C
    $0.50 K$
  • D
    $0.15 K$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$0.13 K$
$0.13 K$
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MCQ 861 Mark
Which of the following sets of solutions of urea $(mol.$ mass $60 \ g mol^{-1})$ and sucrose $(mol.$ mass $342 \ g mol^{-1})$ is isotonic?
  • A
    $9.1 \ gL^{-1}$ urea and $6.0 \ gL^{-1}$ sucrose
  • $3.0 \ gL^{-1}$ urea and $17.1 \ gL^{-1}$ sucrose
  • C
    $3.0 \ gL^{-1}$  urea and $3.0 \ gL^{-1}$  sucrose
  • D
    $6.0 \ gL^{-1}$ urea and $9.0 \ gL^{-1}$ sucrose
Answer
Correct option: B.
$3.0 \ gL^{-1}$ urea and $17.1 \ gL^{-1}$ sucrose
$3.0 \ gL^{-1}$ urea and $17.1 \ gL^{-1}$ sucrose
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MCQ 871 Mark
Which of the following sets of components form homogeneous mixture?
  • A
    Silver chloride + Water
  • Ethyl alcohol + Water
  • C
    Phenol + Water
  • D
    Sugar + Benzene
Answer
Correct option: B.
Ethyl alcohol + Water
B
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MCQ 881 Mark
Which among the following defects is observed in Brass?
  • A
    Interstitial impurity
  • B
    Frenkel
  • C
    Schottky
  • Substitution impurity
Answer
Correct option: D.
Substitution impurity
D
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MCQ 891 Mark
Which among the following statements is true about Schottky defect?
  • A
    In this cation or anion moves from regular site to place between lattice site
  • In this defect cation and anion are lacking in stoichiometric proportion
  • C
    In this regular cation is replaced by different cation
  • D
    Formation of metal alloy Is example of this defect
Answer
Correct option: B.
In this defect cation and anion are lacking in stoichiometric proportion
B
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MCQ 901 Mark
Which among the following pairs of compounds is not isomorphous?
  • A
    $K_2SO_4$ and $K_2SeO_4$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $NaNO_3$ and $CaCO_3$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $NaF$ and $MgO$
  • $NaCl$ and $KCl$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$NaCl$ and $KCl$
$NaCl$ and $KCl$
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MCQ 911 Mark
α-butylene when subjected to hydroboration oxidation reaction, yields ____________.
  • A
    iso-butyl alcohol
  • B
    tert-butyl alcohol
  • n-butyl alcohol
  • D
    sec-butyl alcohol
Answer
Correct option: C.
n-butyl alcohol
C
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MCQ 931 Mark
Which among the following is a set of nucleophiles?
  • A
    $BF_3, H_2O, NH_3$​​​​​​​
  • B
    $AlCl_3, BF_3, NH_3$​​​​​​​
  • $CN^−, H_2O, R–OH$
  • D
    $H^+, NH_3, Cl^−$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: C.
$CN^−, H_2O, R–OH$
$CN^−, H_2O, R–OH$
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MCQ 941 Mark
In the reaction,
$
H _2 O _{2(a q)} \xrightarrow{I_{(a q)}} H _2 O _{(l)}+\frac{1}{2} O _{2(g)}
$
iodide ion acts as ________.
  • A
    acid catalyst
  • homogenous catalyst
  • C
    heterogenous catalyst
  • D
    enzyme catalyst
Answer
Correct option: B.
homogenous catalyst
B
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MCQ 951 Mark
What is the density of water vapour at boiling point of water?
  • A
    $4 \times 10^{-4} g \ cm^{-3}$​​​​​​​
  • $6 \times 10^{-4} g \ cm^{-3}$​​​​​​​
  • C
    $1 \times 10^{-4} g \ cm^{-3}$​​​​​​​
  • D
    $1 g \ cm^{-3}$​​​​​​​
Answer
Correct option: B.
$6 \times 10^{-4} g \ cm^{-3}$​​​​​​​
$6 \times 10^{-4} g \ cm^{-3}$
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MCQ 961 Mark
Which among the following sets of compounds is used as raw material for the preparation of sodium carbonate by Solvay process?
  • A
    $NH_4Cl, H_2O, NaCl$
  • B
    $NaOH, HCl, CO_2$
  • $NaCl, NH_3, Ca(OH)_2$
  • D
    $NaCl, CaCO_3, H_2SO_4$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$NaCl, NH_3, Ca(OH)_2$
$NaCl, NH_3, Ca(OH)_2$
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MCQ 981 Mark
Which bond in a molecule of ethyl magnesium bromide is ionic in nature?
  • A
    C - Mg bond
  • B
    C - H bond
  • C
    C - C bond
  • Mg - Br bond
Answer
Correct option: D.
Mg - Br bond
D
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MCQ 991 Mark
How many moles of ammonia are present in $5.6 \ cm^3$ of ammonia gas at $\text{STP}$?
  • A
    $2.0 \times 10^{−4}\  mole$
  • B
    $3.9 \times 10^{−3}\  mole$
  • $2.5 \times 10^{−4}\  mole$
  • D
    $4.5 \times 10^{−4} \ mole$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$2.5 \times 10^{−4}\  mole$
$2.5 \times 10^{−4}\  mole$
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MCQ 1001 Mark
The temperature of 32°C is equivalent to ______.
  • A
    70°F
  • B
    69°F
  • 89.6°F
  • D
    85.6°F
Answer
Correct option: C.
89.6°F
C
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MCQ 1011 Mark
Particulate pollution from industries and power generation plants can be controlled by ______
  • A
    Scrubber
  • B
    Catalytic converter
  • C
    The positive crankcase ventilation valve
  • Electrostatic precipitators
Answer
Correct option: D.
Electrostatic precipitators
D
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Find out INCORRECT from the following with respect to in-situ conservation.
  • A
    Wildlife Sanctuaries
  • B
    Biosphere reserves
  • Zoological parks
  • D
    National parks
Answer
Correct option: C.
Zoological parks
C
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Bad ozone is present in ______
  • A
    Stratosphere
  • Troposphere
  • C
    Biosphere
  • D
    Hydrosphere
Answer
Correct option: B.
Troposphere
B
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MCQ 1041 Mark
This air pollutant $.........$ also called a laughing gas is lethal to human beings at exposure to $100\  ppm$ or more.
  • A
    $NO ($Nitric Oxide$)$
  • B
    $NO_2 ($Nitrogen di Oxide$)$
  • $N_2O ($Nitrous Oxide$)$
  • D
    $N_2O_3 ($Dinitrogen Trioxide$)$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$N_2O ($Nitrous Oxide$)$
$N_2O ($Nitrous Oxide$)$
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MCQ 1051 Mark
The same land which is used for both cropping and forestry is ______ 
  • A
    Social forestry
  • Agroforestry
  • C
    Aforestation
  • D
    Reforestation
Answer
Correct option: B.
Agroforestry
B
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Ajit's mother has visited a lake & on returning home she was so excited that she jumbled up the sequence of hydrarch succession. How does Ajit arrange the sequence correctly from center to periphery?
  • A
    Phytoplankton → submerged hydrophytes → floating hydrophytes → sedges
  • B
    Sedges → submerged hydrophytes → floating hydrophytes → phytoplankton
  • Phytoplankion → submerged hydrophytes → floating hydrophytes → sedges
  • D
    Floating hydrophyte → submerged hydrophyte → sedges → phytoplankton
Answer
Correct option: C.
Phytoplankion → submerged hydrophytes → floating hydrophytes → sedges
C
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MCQ 1071 Mark
Nita's mother asked her to dump the vegetable waste from her kitchen into the garden. ita wanted to know the fate of this vegetable waste. Give the correct sequence of decomposition of this waste?
  • A
    Humification → fragmentation → catabolism → leaching
  • B
    Catabolism → leaching → fragmentation → humification
  • C
    B → leaching → fragmentation → catabolism → humification
  • Fragmentation → leaching → catabolism → humification
Answer
Correct option: D.
Fragmentation → leaching → catabolism → humification
D
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MCQ 1081 Mark
A protozoan living in the digestive tract of a flea that lives on a dog is an example of ______
  • A
    Kleptoparasitism
  • Hyperparasitism
  • C
    Adelpboparasitism
  • D
    Ectoparasitism
Answer
Correct option: B.
Hyperparasitism
B
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MCQ 1091 Mark
Musk deer is an example of ______ 
  • Vulnerable species
  • B
    Endangered species
  • C
    Rare species
  • D
    Indeterminate species
Answer
Correct option: A.
Vulnerable species
A
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Changing nature of population is called ______ 
  • A
    Population growth
  • Population dynamics
  • C
    Reproductive potential
  • D
    Population explosion
Answer
Correct option: B.
Population dynamics
B
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MCQ 1111 Mark
EcoRl & Hind III are the examples of ______ 
  • A
    Marker genes
  • B
    Transposons
  • C
    Cloning vectors
  • Restriction endonucleases
Answer
Correct option: D.
Restriction endonucleases
D
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Human insulin is produced by culturing the genetically engineered ______
  • Escherichia coli
  • B
    Rhizobium
  • C
    Agrobacterium tumefaciens
  • D
    Erwinia
Answer
Correct option: A.
Escherichia coli
A
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MCQ 1131 Mark
The process of genetic recombination in bacteria in which viruses are involved as the vector is called ______
  • A
    Translocation
  • B
    Transformation
  • Transduction
  • D
    Translation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Transduction
C
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MCQ 1141 Mark
A technique used to make numerous copies of a specific DNA segment quickly and accurately is called ______
  • Polymerase chain reaction
  • B
    Transformation
  • C
    Transcription
  • D
    Polynucleotide chain reaction
Answer
Correct option: A.
Polymerase chain reaction
A
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MCQ 1151 Mark
Dr. Alexander Fleming discovered antibiotics when he was working with the bacterium ______
  • A
    Pseudomonas
  • B
    Xanthomonas
  • C
    Agrobacterium
  • Staphylococcus
Answer
Correct option: D.
Staphylococcus
D
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MCQ 1161 Mark
VAM is a type of ______
  • Endomycorrhiza
  • B
    Bioinsecticide
  • C
    Ectomycorrhiza
  • D
    Bioherbicde
Answer
Correct option: A.
Endomycorrhiza
A
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MCQ 1171 Mark
In the process of sewage treatment, the activated sludge is digested by ______
  • A
    Fungi
  • B
    Aerobic bacteria
  • Anaerobic bacteria
  • D
    Viruses
Answer
Correct option: C.
Anaerobic bacteria
C
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MCQ 1181 Mark
Competition between cow, horse and deer for getting grass as food is called ______.
  • A
    Prodigality of production
  • Interspecific struggle
  • C
    Intraspecific struggle
  • D
    Environmental struggle
Answer
Correct option: B.
Interspecific struggle
B
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MCQ 1191 Mark
In Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer, the cow is administered with ______ to induce follicular.
  • Follicle-stimulating hormone
  • B
    Prolactin
  • C
    Oestrogen
  • D
    Progesterone
Answer
Correct option: A.
Follicle-stimulating hormone
A
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MCQ 1201 Mark
Golden rice, a transgenic crop contains which of the following improved trait?
  • High vitamin-A content
  • B
    High lysine content
  • C
    High protein content
  • D
    Insect pest resistance
Answer
Correct option: A.
High vitamin-A content
A
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MCQ 1211 Mark
The science of changing and improving the heredity of plants is called ______
  • A
    Plant anatomy
  • B
    Plant physiology
  • C
    Plant pathology
  • Plant breeding
Answer
Correct option: D.
Plant breeding
D
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Which method of plant breeding has been used to develop a powdery mildew-resistant variety of moong beans?
  • Mutation breeding
  • B
    Tissue culture
  • C
    Selective breeding
  • D
    Biofortification
Answer
Correct option: A.
Mutation breeding
A
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Phagocytic barriers of innate immunity involve ______
  • A
    Neutrophils and acidophils
  • B
    Acidophils and basophils
  • C
    Basophils and monocytes
  • Neutrophils and monocytes
Answer
Correct option: D.
Neutrophils and monocytes
D
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MCQ 1241 Mark
Cocaine is obtained from ______ plant.
  • A
    Cannabis sativa
  • Erythroxylum coca
  • C
    Atropa belladonna
  • D
    Papaver somniferum
Answer
Correct option: B.
Erythroxylum coca
B
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Wuchereria bancrofti causes ______ 
  • A
    Subcutaneous filariasis
  • Lymphatic filariasis
  • C
    Servous cavity filariasis
  • D
    Amoebiasis
Answer
Correct option: B.
Lymphatic filariasis
B
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MCQ 1261 Mark
Pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi is due to ______ present in its outer membrane.
  • Lipopolysaccharides
  • B
    Nucleic acids
  • C
    Carbohydrates
  • D
    Glycoproteins
Answer
Correct option: A.
Lipopolysaccharides
A
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MCQ 1271 Mark
The reflex arc which is made up of one sensory and one motor neuron is ______ 
  • A
    Polysynaptic
  • B
    Asynaptic
  • Monosynaptic
  • D
    Bisynaptic
Answer
Correct option: C.
Monosynaptic
C
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Medulla oblongata controls involuntary vital activity such as ______ 
  • A
    Yawning
  • B
    Sneezing
  • Respiration
  • D
    Vomiting
Answer
Correct option: C.
Respiration
C
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Select the CORRECT match of part of the human ear and its function.
  • Crista and macula - responsible for maintenance of body posture and balance
  • B
    Organ of Corti - receptors for the sense of vision
  • C
    Tympanic membrane - connects middle ear cavity with the pharynx
  • D
    Ear ossicles - transmission of sound waves from the internal ear
Answer
Correct option: A.
Crista and macula - responsible for maintenance of body posture and balance
A
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MCQ 1311 Mark
Vomiting is controlled by ______
  • Medulla Oblongata
  • B
    Hypothalamus
  • C
    Cerebrum
  • D
    Midbrain
Answer
Correct option: A.
Medulla Oblongata
A
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MCQ 1321 Mark
Select the motor nerves from the following group.
  • A
    Olfactory, Occulomotor, Hypoglossal
  • Occulomotor, Abducens, Hypoglossal
  • C
    Olfactory, Optic, Abducens
  • D
    Trigeminal, Facial, Spinal accessory
Answer
Correct option: B.
Occulomotor, Abducens, Hypoglossal
B
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MCQ 1331 Mark
Which one of the following is correct?
  • A
    Lymph = Plasma + RBCs + Platelets
  • B
    Blood = Plasma + (RBCs + WBCs + Platelets)
  • Lymph = Blood - (RBCs + platelets + some plasma proteins)
  • D
    Blood = Plasma + RBCs + Leucocytes
Answer
Correct option: C.
Lymph = Blood - (RBCs + platelets + some plasma proteins)
C
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Which one of the following plasma proteins brings about coagulation of blood?
  • A
    Globulin
  • Fibrinogen
  • C
    Heparin
  • D
    Albumin
Answer
Correct option: B.
Fibrinogen
B
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MCQ 1351 Mark
In a healthy adult man, the type of leucocytes performing phagocytosis is ______
  • A
    Eosinophils
  • Monocytes
  • C
    Basophils
  • D
    Lymphocytes
Answer
Correct option: B.
Monocytes
B
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MCQ 1361 Mark
Decrease and increase in the number of RBCs is respectively termed as ______ 
  • A
    Polycythemia and erythropoiesis
  • B
    Erythrocytopenia and erythropoiesis
  • Erytbrocytopenia and polycythemia
  • D
    Polycythemia and erythrocytopenia
Answer
Correct option: C.
Erytbrocytopenia and polycythemia
C
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Observe the diagram, Identify the parts labelled as P, Q, R, S. Choose the correct option for the conduction of cardiac impulse
Image
  • A
    P - AV node, Q - SA node, R - Bundle of His, S - Purkinje fibres
  • B
    P - Purkinje fibres, Q - Bundle of His, R - AV node, S - SA node
  • C
    P - Bundle of His, Q - Purkinje fibres, R - SA node, S - AV node
  • P - SA node, Q - AV node, R - Bundle of His, S - Purkinje fibres
Answer
Correct option: D.
P - SA node, Q - AV node, R - Bundle of His, S - Purkinje fibres
D
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MCQ 1381 Mark
The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown into series of irregular muscular ridges called ______ 
  • A
    Microvilli
  • B
    Papillary muscles
  • Trabeculae camae
  • D
    Chordae tendinae
Answer
Correct option: C.
Trabeculae camae
C
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MCQ 1391 Mark
In the given diagram, 'X' indicates ______.
Image
  • A
    Pulmonary artery conducting oxygenated blood away from the heart
  • B
    Pulmonary vein conducting oxygenated blood
  • C
    Systemic Aorta conducting oxygenated blood away from the heart.
  • Pulmonary artery conducting deoxygenated blood away from the heart
Answer
Correct option: D.
Pulmonary artery conducting deoxygenated blood away from the heart
D
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MCQ 1401 Mark
Which of the following is correct?
  • Blood = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs + Blood platelets
  • B
    Plasma = Blood + Lymphocytes
  • C
    Lymph = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs
  • D
    Serum = Blood + fibrinogen
Answer
Correct option: A.
Blood = Plasma + RBCs + WBCs + Blood platelets
A
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MCQ 1411 Mark
Number of lobes in right and left lungs respectively in human being is ______.
  • A
    3 and 4
  • B
    2 and 4
  • 3 and 2
  • D
    4 and 2
Answer
Correct option: C.
3 and 2
C
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MCQ 1421 Mark
$CO_2$ carried from the tissue cells in the blood is in the form of $........$
  • A
    $NaHCO_3$ only
  • B
    $Na_2CO_3$ only
  • $NaHCO_3$ and $KHCO_3$ 
  • D
    $NaCO_3$ and $NaOH$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$NaHCO_3$ and $KHCO_3$ 
$NaHCO_3$ and $KHCO_3$ 
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MCQ 1431 Mark
Gibberellin was first extracted from _______.
  • A
    Maryland mammoth
  • B
    Avena sativa
  • Gibberelia fujkuroi
  • D
    Zea mays
Answer
Correct option: C.
Gibberelia fujkuroi
C
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Which of the following is the sink end of the plant?
  • Apical bud
  • B
    Leaf
  • C
    Stem tuber
  • D
    Cotyledon
Answer
Correct option: A.
Apical bud
A
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Chilling treatment of geminating seeds stimulates the formation of ______ hormone that induces flowering.
  • A
    Kinetin
  • Vemalin
  • C
    Auxin
  • D
    ABA
Answer
Correct option: B.
Vemalin
B
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MCQ 1461 Mark
The dieback of Citrus and reclamation disease of cereals and leguminuous plants is due to the deficiency of ______.
  • A
    Zinc
  • Copper
  • C
    Chlorine
  • D
    Molybdenum
Answer
Correct option: B.
Copper
B
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MCQ 1471 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement about the active absorption of water.
  • A
    The suction force is not transmitted from leaf veins to root hair.
  • The water enters the root hair by osmosis.
  • C
    There is no expenditure of energy.
  • D
    Living cells and root do not play an important role in water absorption.
Answer
Correct option: B.
The water enters the root hair by osmosis.
B
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MCQ 1481 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement about the active absorption of water.
  • A
    Living cells and root do not play an important role in water absorption.
  • B
    The suction force is not transmitted from leaf veins to root hair.
  • C
    There is no expenditure of energy.
  • The water enters the root hair by osmosis.
Answer
Correct option: D.
The water enters the root hair by osmosis.
D
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MCQ 1491 Mark
Select the CORRECT set of homologous organs.
  • A
    Wings of insect, bird and bat
  • B
    Vemifonn appenctix. caecum, coccyx
  • Forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and bat
  • D
    Caecum, Wings of insect, forelimbs of bird
Answer
Correct option: C.
Forelimbs of frog, lizard, bird and bat
C
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MCQ 1501 Mark
Which of the following is also called prehistoric man?
  • Handy man
  • B
    Heidelberg man
  • C
    Neanderthal man
  • D
    Cromagnon man
Answer
Correct option: A.
Handy man
A
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MCQ 1511 Mark
In a population, Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by following factors EXCEPT ______.
  • Gene flow
  • B
    Mutations
  • C
    Genetic drift
  • D
    Non-random mating
Answer
Correct option: A.
Gene flow
A
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MCQ 1521 Mark
In Urey and Miller's experiment. the ratio of ammonia: hydrogen : methane was _______.
  • 2 : 2 : 1
  • B
    1 : 2 : 1
  • C
    1 : 1 : 2
  • D
    1 : 2 : 2
Answer
Correct option: A.
2 : 2 : 1
A
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MCQ 1531 Mark
The largest cranial capacity was found in ______.
  • A
    Homo habilis
  • B
    Homo erectus
  • C
    Homo neander thalensis
  • Homo sapiens fossils
Answer
Correct option: D.
Homo sapiens fossils
D
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MCQ 1541 Mark
Competition between cow, horse and deer for getting grass as food is called ______.
  • A
    Environmental struggle
  • Interspecific struggle
  • C
    Intraspecific struggle
  • D
    Prodigality of production
Answer
Correct option: B.
Interspecific struggle
B
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MCQ 1551 Mark
Variable number of tandem repeats has significance in ______.
  • DNA finger printing
  • B
    Production of transgenic animals
  • C
    Vaccine production
  • D
    Gene therapy
Answer
Correct option: A.
DNA finger printing
A
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MCQ 1561 Mark
Which one of the following scientist performed the experiment with bacteriophage to prove DNA as genetic material?
  • A
    Mc Carty
  • B
    Macleod
  • C
    Griffith
  • Hershey and Chase
Answer
Correct option: D.
Hershey and Chase
D
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MCQ 1571 Mark
In a eukaryotic transcription and translation take place ______.
  • A
    In cytoplasm and ribosomes
  • B
    Only in cytoplasm
  • In nucleus and cytoplasm
  • D
    Only in nucleus
Answer
Correct option: C.
In nucleus and cytoplasm
C
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MCQ 1581 Mark
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
  • A
    Adenine, Guaninie → Purines
  • B
    Cytosine, Thymine → Pyrimidine
  • Thymine, Guanine → Pyrimidine
  • D
    Cytosine, Uracil → Pyrimidine
Answer
Correct option: C.
Thymine, Guanine → Pyrimidine
C
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MCQ 1591 Mark
Which one of the following Is NOT a structural part of a transcription unit in DNA?
  • A
    Promoter
  • B
    Structural gene
  • C
    Terminator
  • Inducer
Answer
Correct option: D.
Inducer
D
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MCQ 1601 Mark
Which of the following does NOT agree with chrotnosomal theory of inheritance?
  • A
    Gametes carry hereditary character
  • During gamete formation, homologous chromosomes remain together.
  • C
    Nucleus contains are diploid
  • D
    Somatic cells are diploid
Answer
Correct option: B.
During gamete formation, homologous chromosomes remain together.
B
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MCQ 1611 Mark
Chromosomal constitution of normal human females can be written as ______.
  • A
    44 + XXY
  • B
    44 + XY
  • C
    44 + XO
  • 44 + XX
Answer
Correct option: D.
44 + XX
D
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MCQ 1621 Mark
Which of the following develops through parthenogene is?
  • A
    Female Drosophilla
  • Male honey bee
  • C
    Male Drosophila
  • D
    Worker honey bee
Answer
Correct option: B.
Male honey bee
B
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MCQ 1631 Mark
A short stature with webbing of neck and low posterior hairline indicates ______ syndrome.
  • A
    Edward's
  • Tumer's
  • C
    Klinefelter's
  • D
    Down's
Answer
Correct option: B.
Tumer's
B
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MCQ 1641 Mark
A gene which causes death of its bearer is ______.
  • A
    Dominant
  • B
    Intermediate
  • C
    Recessive
  • Lethal
Answer
Correct option: D.
Lethal
D
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MCQ 1651 Mark
Which one of the following genotype will yield only one type of gamete?
  • A
    Ttaa
  • B
    TTAa
  • ttaa
  • D
    TtAa
Answer
Correct option: C.
ttaa
C
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MCQ 1661 Mark
One of the reasons why law of segregation of gametes is universally applicable, is ______.
  • Gametes are haploid in higher organisms.
  • B
    Gametes arc always hybrids.
  • C
    Gametes receive both the factors controlling a particular trait.
  • D
    Gametes are diploid in higher organisms.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Gametes are haploid in higher organisms.
A
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MCQ 1671 Mark
Failure of testes to descend from abdomen into scrotum leads to ______.
  • A
    Hyperthyroidism
  • B
    Feminism
  • C
    Albinism
  • Cryptorchidism
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cryptorchidism
D
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Conversion of spermatid into sperm is called as _______.
  • A
    Gametogenesis
  • Spermiogenesis
  • C
    Spennatogenesis
  • D
    Metagenesis
Answer
Correct option: B.
Spermiogenesis
B
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MCQ 1691 Mark
Which one the following is a part of external genitalia of a female human being?
  • A
    Ishmus
  • B
    Fimbriae
  • C
    Infundibulum
  • Labia minora
Answer
Correct option: D.
Labia minora
D
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MCQ 1701 Mark
On the fourteenth day of the menstrual cycle the female gamete released is _____.
  • Secondary oocyte
  • B
    Mature ovum
  • C
    Oogonuim
  • D
    Primary oocyte
Answer
Correct option: A.
Secondary oocyte
A
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MCQ 1711 Mark
Select the MISMATCHED pair.
  • A
    Placenta - Human Chronic gonadotropin
  • B
    Corpus Luteum - Progesterone
  • Cowper's gland - Prostagindin
  • D
    Acrosome - Hyaluronidase
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cowper's gland - Prostagindin
C
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MCQ 1721 Mark
The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is ______.
  • A
    Cervix
  • B
    Ampulla
  • C
    lsthmus
  • Infundibulum
Answer
Correct option: D.
Infundibulum
D
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MCQ 1731 Mark
In human female, during which state of parturition does amnion and chorion rupture?
  • Dilation
  • B
    Expulsion
  • C
    Lactation
  • D
    Placental
Answer
Correct option: A.
Dilation
A
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Each testis is connected to the wall of scrotum by short. fibromuscular band called ______.
  • A
    Tunica albuginea
  • Gubernaculum
  • C
    Tunica vascularis
  • D
    Tunica vaginalls
Answer
Correct option: B.
Gubernaculum
B
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MCQ 1751 Mark
Fructose is found in secretion of ______.
  • A
    Vestibular gland
  • B
    Corpus luteum
  • Seminal Vesicles
  • D
    Cowper's glands
Answer
Correct option: C.
Seminal Vesicles
C
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MCQ 1761 Mark
In Primrose, self-pollination is avoided by _______.
  • Heterostyly
  • B
    Protandry
  • C
    Unisexuality
  • D
    Self-sterility
Answer
Correct option: A.
Heterostyly
A
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Asexual reproduction is also known as ______.
  • A
    Autogamy
  • Apomixis
  • C
    Syngamy
  • D
    Amphimixis
Answer
Correct option: B.
Apomixis
B
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MCQ 1781 Mark
ln grafting stock forms ______ of grafted plant.
  • A
    Lateral branches
  • Root system
  • C
    Flower
  • D
    Shoot system
Answer
Correct option: B.
Root system
B
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MCQ 1791 Mark
The pollen tube after entering into an ovule is attracted by ______.
  • A
    Polar nuclei
  • Filliorm apparatus of synergid
  • C
    Antipodal
  • D
    Egg cell
Answer
Correct option: B.
Filliorm apparatus of synergid
B
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MCQ 1801 Mark
Gemmule formation takes place in ________.
  • A
    Hydra
  • Spongilla
  • C
    Planaria 
  • D
    Human being
Answer
Correct option: B.
Spongilla
B
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MCQ 1811 Mark
Arrangement of flowers in the given plant favours which type of pollination?
Image
  • A
    Entomophious
  • B
    Chiroterophilous
  • Anemophilous
  • D
    Omithophilous
Answer
Correct option: C.
Anemophilous
C
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MCQ 1821 Mark
Which one of the following is unique to flowers pollinated by bats?
  • A
    Flowers without any fragrance
  • B
    Flowers are without nectar
  • C
    Bright coloured flowers with pleasant fragrance
  • Flowers emit rotten fruit like odour
Answer
Correct option: D.
Flowers emit rotten fruit like odour
D
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MCQ 1831 Mark
The layer of another wall that helps in the dehiscence of another at maturity is ______.
  • A
    Epidermis
  • Endothecium
  • C
    Tapetum
  • D
    Middle layers
Answer
Correct option: B.
Endothecium
B
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MCQ 1841 Mark
Identify the CORRECT Sequence of matches with the type of pollination and its characteristics.
a.Ornithophily1.nocturnal flower
b.Entomophily2.light pollens
c.Chiropterophily3.funnel shaped corolla
d.Anemophily4.pleasant fragrance neactar
  • A
    a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2
  • B
    a - 2, b - 1, c - 3, d - 4
  • C
    a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1
  • a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
Answer
Correct option: D.
a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
D
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MCQ 1851 Mark
The asexual reproduction in bacteria occurs by ______.
  • Binary fission
  • B
    Zoospores
  • C
    Budding
  • D
    Conidia
Answer
Correct option: A.
Binary fission
A
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MCQ 1861 Mark
A student tried to perform grafting in maize but he was unsuccessful. What will be the reason for this?
  • A
    The stock & scion are not suitable to each other.
  • Maize plants do not show intrafascicular cambium.
  • C
    The season is not good for grafting
  • D
    Maize plants are susceptible to disease
Answer
Correct option: B.
Maize plants do not show intrafascicular cambium.
B
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MCQ 1871 Mark
If flower shows presence of pollen grains having smooth exine and versatile anthers 8 than it is a floral adaptation for ______.
  • A
    Omithophily
  • Anemophily
  • C
    Entomophily
  • D
    Chiropterophily
Answer
Correct option: B.
Anemophily
B
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MCQ 1881 Mark
Among the following animals, the best conserver of water is ______.
  • A
    Tiger
  • Cobra
  • C
    Turtle
  • D
    Frog
Answer
Correct option: B.
Cobra
B
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MCQ 1891 Mark
Nitrogenous waste substance produced in liver during ornithine cycle is ______.
  • A
    Uric acid
  • B
    Ammonia
  • C
    Guanine
  • Urea
Answer
Correct option: D.
Urea
D
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MCQ 1901 Mark
JG cells of Kidney secrete ______.
  • A
    Angiotensinogen
  • B
    Atrial natuiuetic factor
  • C
    Aldosterone
  • Renin
Answer
Correct option: D.
Renin
D
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Ptyallin is an enzyme secreted by _____.
  • A
    Gastric gland
  • Salivary gland
  • C
    Liver
  • D
    Pancreas
Answer
Correct option: B.
Salivary gland
B
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MCQ 1921 Mark
The organ that does NOT secrete any digestive enzyme is ______.
  • A
    Pancreas
  • B
    Salivary gland
  • Liver
  • D
    Stomach
Answer
Correct option: C.
Liver
C
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MCQ 1931 Mark
Which one of the following are sequential steps during fermentation?
  • A
    Decarboxylation → hydrolysis → glycolysis → reduction
  • B
    Glycolysis → hydrolysis → reduction → decarboxylation
  • C
    Reduction → glycolysis → hydrolysis → decarboxylation
  • Hydrolysis → glycolysis → decarboxylation → reduction
Answer
Correct option: D.
Hydrolysis → glycolysis → decarboxylation → reduction
D
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MCQ 1941 Mark
Oxidation of $NADH_2$ and $FADH_2$ takes place during $\text{ETS},$ which is associated with $........$
  • A
    Strama
  • B
    Cytoplasm
  • Cristae
  • D
    Matrix
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cristae
Cristae
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MCQ 1951 Mark
During glycolysis, the first molecule to be dehydrogenated is ______.
  • A
    Fructose 1, 6, disphosphate
  • B
    PEPA
  • PGAL
  • D
    Fructose 6 phosphate
Answer
Correct option: C.
PGAL
C
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MCQ 1961 Mark
During Krebs cycle $FADH_2$ is formed in conversion of $.......$
  • A
    lsocitric acid $\rightarrow $ Oxalo succinic acid
  • B
    Succinyl coenzyme $A \rightarrow $ Succinic acid
  • Succinic acid $\rightarrow $ Fumaric acid
  • D
    Succinyl coenzyme $A \rightarrow $ Succininc acid
Answer
Correct option: C.
Succinic acid $\rightarrow $ Fumaric acid
Succinic acid $\rightarrow $ Fumaric acid
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MCQ 1971 Mark
During glycolysis of aerobic respiration, how many times oxidation of substrate occurs?
  • Twice
  • B
    Once
  • C
    Thrice
  • D
    No oxidation occurs
Answer
Correct option: A.
Twice
A
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MCQ 1981 Mark
During Krebs cycle oxalo acetic acid is formed by oxidation of ______.
  • A
    Fumaric acid
  • B
    Citric acid
  • C
    Succinyl CoA
  • Malic acid
Answer
Correct option: D.
Malic acid
D
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MCQ 1991 Mark
Which one of the following sugar does NOT have same empirical fonnula as that of carbohydrate?
  • A
    Galactose
  • Digitoxose
  • C
    Glycogen
  • D
    Maltose
Answer
Correct option: B.
Digitoxose
B
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MCQ 2001 Mark
Enzymes can react with acidic or basic substances due to their ______ nature.
  • A
    Competitive
  • B
    Amorphous
  • C
    Colloidal
  • Amphoteric
Answer
Correct option: D.
Amphoteric
D
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