MCQ 11 Mark
In the case of transistor, the relation between current ratios $\alpha_{ dc }$ and $\beta_{ dc }$ is ______.
- A
$`beta_"dc"=(1-alpha_"dc")/alpha_"dc"`$
- ✓
$`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1-alpha_"dc")`$
- C
$`beta_"dc"=(1+alpha_"dc")/alpha_"dc"`$
- D
$`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1+alpha_"dc")`$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1-alpha_"dc")`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 21 Mark
In switching circuit, transistor is in ON state and values of $I _{ C }$ and $I _{ B }$ are 4.2 mA and $5 \mu A$ respectively and $R _{ C }=1$ $k^{\prime} O$ mega and $R _{ B }=300 k ^{\prime}$ Omega'. If $V _{ BE }=0.5 V$, find the value of $V _{ BB }$.
View full question & answer→MCQ 31 Mark
After 1 hour, `(1/8)^"th"` of the initial mass of a certain radioactive isotope remains undecayed. The half-life of the isotopes is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 41 Mark
The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of `""^9""_4"Be"`. The number of nucleons in Ge will be ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 51 Mark
When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third excited state to the ground state, the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron becomes ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 61 Mark
Which of the following models was successful in explaining the observed hydrogen spectrum?
View full question & answer→MCQ 71 Mark
According to Rutherford's model of an atom, ______
- A
both positive and negative charges are distributed equally in two hemispheres of an atom.
- B
both positive and negative charges are randomly distributed in the atom.
- C
all negative charge is concentrated at the centre of an atom.
- ✓
all the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region at the centre of an atom.
AnswerCorrect option: D. all the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region at the centre of an atom.
View full question & answer→MCQ 81 Mark
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is ( c being velocity of light) ______.
- A
- ✓
`1/"c"(("E")/(2"m"))^(1/2)`
- C
- D
`1/"c"((2"m")/("E"))^(1/2)`
AnswerCorrect option: B. `1/"c"(("E")/(2"m"))^(1/2)`
View full question & answer→MCQ 91 Mark
When light of wavelength '`lambda`' is incident on photosensitive surface, photons of power 'P' are emitted. The number of photons (n) emitted in 't' second is (h = Planck's constant, c = velocity of light in vacuum) ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 101 Mark
In series resonance, LCR circuit, below the resonant frequency, the circuit is ____________.
- A
both resistive and inductive
- B
- ✓
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 111 Mark
In series 'LR' circuit and in series 'RC' circuit, same current is flowing. If the frequency of e.m.f. of a.c. is increased for both the circuits, the impedance will ____________.
- A
decrease in both the circuits
- B
increase in both the circuits
- ✓
increase in 'LR' circuit and decrease in 'RC' circuit
- D
decrease in 'LR' circuit and increase in 'RC' circuit
AnswerCorrect option: C. increase in 'LR' circuit and decrease in 'RC' circuit
View full question & answer→MCQ 121 Mark
In a series LCR circuit R = 300 Ω, L = 0.9 H, C = 2 µF, ω = 1000 rad/s. The impedance of the circuit is ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 131 Mark
Magnetic flux of 12 microweber is linked with a coil. When current of 3 mA flows through it, the self inductance of the coil is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 141 Mark
A coil of area $A=0.8 m^2$ is situated in a uniform magnetic field $B=6.0 Wb / m 2$ and makes an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to ______.

View full question & answer→MCQ 151 Mark
The magnetic property of magnetic substance is associated with ____________.
- ✓
orbital and spin motion of electrons
- B
only spin motion of electrons
- C
spin motion of the nucleus
- D
only orbital motion of electrons
AnswerCorrect option: A. orbital and spin motion of electrons
View full question & answer→MCQ 161 Mark
What is the magnetization of a bar magnet having length 5 cm and area of cross section $2 cm^2$ ? $\left( M =1 Am ^2\right)$
- A
$10^{-5} A / m$
- B
$10^4 A / m$
- ✓
$10^5 A / m$
- D
$10^{-4} A / m$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $10^5 A / m$
View full question & answer→MCQ 171 Mark
A 600 turn coil of effective area $0.05 m^2$ is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field $4 \times 10^{-5} T$. When the plane of the coil is rotated by $90^{\circ}$ around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s , the e.m.f. induced in the coil will be: ____________.
- ✓
$12 \times 10^{-3} V$
- B
$12 \times 10^{-2} V$
- C
$12 \times 10^{-5} V$
- D
$12 \times 10^{-4} V$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $12 \times 10^{-3} V$
View full question & answer→MCQ 181 Mark
Magnetic dipole moment `vec"m"` of the coil, placed in uniform magnetic field of induction `vec"B"` does not depend on ____________.
- ✓
magnetic field of induction
- B
- C
area of the cross-section
- D
AnswerCorrect option: A. magnetic field of induction
View full question & answer→MCQ 191 Mark
A straight wire of length 50 cm carrying a current of 6 A is suspended in mid-air by a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T (as shown in figure). The mass of the wire is ______.
(g = 10` "ms"^-2`)
View full question & answer→MCQ 201 Mark
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω is connected to a battery of 2V, with a resistance of 1900 Ω in series. The deflection obtained is 30 divisions. To reduce this deflection by 10 divisions, the additional resistance required to be connected in series is ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 211 Mark
To convert galvanometer into an ammeter one has to connect ____________.
- A
high resistance in parallel
- ✓
low resistance in parallel
- C
- D
high resistance is series
AnswerCorrect option: B. low resistance in parallel
View full question & answer→MCQ 221 Mark
A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10 `Omega.` It is connected in series with a resistance and an accumulator of e.m.f 2 V and of negligible internal resistance. A source of e.m.f 10 mV is balanced against a 40 cm length of the potentiometer wire. The value of the external resistance is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 231 Mark
ln, a Wheatstone network, P = Q = R = 8 `Omega` and S is 10 `Omega`. The required resistance to be connected to S so that network is balanced is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 241 Mark
The potential difference $\left(V_A-V_B\right)$ between the points A and B in the given figure is ______.

View full question & answer→MCQ 251 Mark
Capacitors of capacities $C _1, C _2$, and $C _3$ are connected in series. If the combination is connected to a supply of 'V' volt, then the potential difference across capacitor $C_1$ is ______
AnswerCorrect option: D. $`(C_2C_3V)/(C_2C_3 + C_1C_3 + C_1C_2)`$
View full question & answer→MCQ 261 Mark
The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by $V=4 x^2$volt. The electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is ____________.
- A
8 along positive X - axis
- B
16 along positive Z- axis
- ✓
8 along negative X - axis
- D
16 along negative X - axis
AnswerCorrect option: C. 8 along negative X - axis
View full question & answer→MCQ 271 Mark
A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 4 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 281 Mark
The graph shows the variation of fringe width (β) versus distance of the screen from the plane of the slits (D) in Young's double-slit experiment Keeping other parameters the same. The wavelength of light used can be calculated as d = distance between the slits ______

AnswerCorrect option: B. the slope of graph $\times d$
View full question & answer→MCQ 291 Mark
For a radiation of 9 GHz passing through air. The number of waves passing through 1 m length is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 301 Mark
In melde's experiment, when the tension decreases by 0.009 kg-wt, the number of loops changes from 4 to 5. The initial tension is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 311 Mark
The amplitude of a wave represented by equation `"y" = 1/(sqrt"a") "sin" omega"t" pm 1/(sqrt"b") "cos" omega"t"` will be ____________.
- A
`(sqrt"a" pm sqrt"b")/"ab"`
- B
- C
`(sqrt"a" + sqrt"b")/"ab"`
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 321 Mark
An `alpha` - particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by gold nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of ______.
- A
$10^{-10} cm$
- ✓
$10^{-12} cm$
- C
$10^{-16} cm$
- D
$10^{-14} cm$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $10^{-12} cm$
View full question & answer→MCQ 331 Mark
If the length of an oscillating simple pendulum is made `1/3` times at a place keeping amplitude the same, then its total energy (E) will be ______
View full question & answer→MCQ 341 Mark
The pointer reading v/s load graph for a spring balance is as given in the figure. The spring constant is ______.

View full question & answer→MCQ 351 Mark
Given that 'p' joule of heat is incident on a body and out of it 'q' joule is reflected and transmitted by it. The absorption coefficient of the body is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 361 Mark
The average K.E. of hydrogen molecules at 27° C is E. The average K.E. at 627° C is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 371 Mark
A metal coin of thickness 'd' and density 'ρ' is floating on water of surface tension 'T'. The radius of the coin is ______.
g = acceleration due to gravity
View full question & answer→MCQ 381 Mark
When a mercury drop of radius 'R', breaks into 'n' droplets of equal size, the radius 'r' of each droplet is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 391 Mark
Two bodies with moments of inertia $I _1$ and $I _2\left( I _1> I _2\right)$ have equal angular momenta. If $E _1$ and $E _2$ are their rotational kinetic energies respectively, then ____________.
- ✓
$E_1<E_2$
- B
$E _1=$ `sqrt2` $E_2$
- C
$E_1 > E_2$
- D
$E _1= E _2$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $E_1<E_2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 401 Mark
A motorcyclist rides in a horizontal circle about central vertical axis inside a cylindrical chamber of radius 'r'. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the inner surface of chamber is 'µ', the minimum speed of motorcyclist to prevent him from skidding is ______.
('g' =acceleration due to gravity)
View full question & answer→MCQ 411 Mark
In insulators, ____________.
- A
The valence band is partially filled with electrons
- B
The conduction band is filled with electrons and valence band is empty
- C
The conduction band is partially filled with electrons
- ✓
The conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons
AnswerCorrect option: D. The conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons
View full question & answer→MCQ 421 Mark
Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges $+10 \mu C$ and $-20 \mu C$ respectively and placed at a distance $R$ from each other experience force $F_1$. If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they experience force $F_2$. The ratio of $F_1$ to $F_2$ is...............
View full question & answer→MCQ 431 Mark
A point object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 25 cm. The image will form at ____________.
- ✓
12.5 cm behind the mirror
- B
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: A. 12.5 cm behind the mirror
View full question & answer→MCQ 441 Mark
Assertion: The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.
- A
Assertion is True, Reason is True: Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion
- ✓
Assertion is False, Reason is False
- C
Assertion is True. Reason is True: Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion
- D
Assertion is True, Reason is False
AnswerCorrect option: B. Assertion is False, Reason is False
View full question & answer→MCQ 451 Mark
In a closed pipe, the note of fundamental frequency can be produced if the length of the air column is equal to ____________.
- A
- B
- C
three quarters of the wavelength
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 461 Mark
1 litre of an ideal gas at 27 °C is heated at a constant pressure to 127 °C. The final volume is approximately ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 471 Mark
If the Earth-Sun distance is held constant and the mass of the Sun is doubled, then the period of revolution of the earth around the Sun will change to ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 481 Mark
The magnitudes of the gravitational potentials at distances $r_1$ and $r_2$ from the centre of a uniform sphere of radius $R$ and mass M are $V _1$ and $V _2$ respectively. Then............
- ✓
$`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1^2/"r"_2^2` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
- B
$`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1/"r"_2` ; if r_1 > R and r_2 > R.$
- C
$`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_2^2/"r"_1^2` ; if r_1 > R and r_2 > R.$
- D
$`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_2/"r"_1` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
AnswerCorrect option: A. $`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1^2/"r"_2^2` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
View full question & answer→MCQ 491 Mark
5 m long see-saw remains horizontal when two children weighing 20 kg and 30 kg respectively sit at two ends. Where is the see-saw supported?
View full question & answer→MCQ 501 Mark
Two cars of masses ' $m_1$ ', and ' $m_2$ ' are moving in the circles of radii ' $r_1$ ' and ' $r_2$ ' respectively. Their angular peed ' $\omega_1$ ' and ' $\omega_2$ ' are such that they both complete one revolution in the same time ' $t$ '. The ratio of linear speed of ' $m_1{ }^{\prime}$ ' to the linear speed of ' $m_2$ ' is ..........
AnswerCorrect option: B. $r_1: r_2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 511 Mark
What is the number of $\begin{array}{cc}\\\backslash\phantom{.......}\\\phantom{}\ce{C = O}\\/\phantom{........}\end{array}$ groups present in nitrogen bases of nucleic acids, thymine and uracil respectively?
View full question & answer→MCQ 521 Mark
How many moles of acetic acid are obtained in the reaction when one mole glucose is treated with excess acetic anhydride?
View full question & answer→MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following reagents is used for conversion of glucose to glucoxime?
View full question & answer→MCQ 541 Mark
Select the CORRECT option about the following reaction. $\ce{CH3 - CH2 - N^+(CH3)3 - I^- ->[Moist][Ag2O] X ->[\Delta] Y + Z + H2O}$
- ✓
The product X is strongly basic.
- B
The reaction is called Hofmann exhaustive alkylation.
- C
The tertiary amine (Z) formed in the reaction is triethylamine
- D
The alkene (Y) formed in the reaction is propene.
AnswerCorrect option: A. The product X is strongly basic.
View full question & answer→MCQ 551 Mark
In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be _______________.
- A
$C _6 H _5 NH _2> NH _3>\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH$
- B
$NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2>\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH$
- C
$\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > C _6 H _5 NH _2> NH _3$
- ✓
$\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 561 Mark
IUPAC name of p-toluidine is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 571 Mark
What amount of dinitrogen contains $3.6 \times 10^{18}$molecules?
View full question & answer→MCQ 581 Mark
Acetone reacts with iodine $(I_2)$ to form iodoform, in the presence of ____________.
- A
$MgCO _3$
- ✓
$NaOH$
- C
$CaCO _3$
- D
$K_2 SO _4$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $NaOH$
View full question & answer→MCQ 591 Mark
In the Wolff-Kishner reduction of alkyl aryl ketones, ketones are first converted into ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 601 Mark
$\ce{(CH3)2CH - O - CH3 ->[Cold HI] X + Y}$ $\ce{X ->[K2Cr2O7][dil. H2SO4] Z}$
$\ce{Y ->[NaOH(aq)][\Delta] CH3OH}$
Identify X, Y and Z.
- A
X - Propan-2-ol
Y - Methanol
Z - Propanone
- B
X - 2-Iodopropane
Y - Iodomethane
Z - Propanone
- ✓
X - Propan-2-ol
Y - Iodomethane
Z - Propanone
- D
X - Propan-1-ol
Y - Iodomethane
Z - Propanal
AnswerCorrect option: C. X - Propan-2-ol
Y - Iodomethane
Z - Propanone
View full question & answer→MCQ 611 Mark
Phenoxide ion is more stable than phenol due to the ____________.
- A
delocalisation of positive charge in phenoxide ion
- B
resonating structures of benzene ring
- C
negative charge on oxygen atom
- ✓
delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion
AnswerCorrect option: D. delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion
View full question & answer→MCQ 621 Mark
In propylene glycerol, −OH groups are attached to ____________ carbon atoms.
- A
- B
one primary and two secondary
- C
three primary and zero secondary
- ✓
two primary and one secondary
AnswerCorrect option: D. two primary and one secondary
View full question & answer→MCQ 631 Mark
Which of the following is FALSE regarding $S_N 2$ reaction mechanism?
AnswerCorrect option: A. Polar solvent is favourable.
View full question & answer→MCQ 641 Mark
The compound with the lowest boiling point is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 651 Mark
Which of the following compounds is obtained when t-butyl bromide is treated with alcoholic ammonia?
- A
$\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{CH3}\phantom{....}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{CH3 - C - CH2 - NH2}\\
|\phantom{.......}\\
\ce{Br}\phantom{......}
\end{array}$
- B
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{...}\ce{CH3}\\
|\\
\ce{CH3 - C - CH3}\\
|\\
\phantom{...}\ce{NH2}
\end{array}$
- C
$\begin{array}{cc}
\phantom{...}\ce{CH3}\\
|\\
\ce{CH3 - C - CH3}\\
|\\
\phantom{.....}\ce{NHBr}
\end{array}$
- ✓
$\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{CH3 - C = CH2}\\
|\phantom{.}\\
\phantom{..}\ce{CH3}
\end{array}$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{CH3 - C = CH2}\\
|\phantom{.}\\
\phantom{..}\ce{CH3}
\end{array}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 661 Mark
Which coordinate compound from following has a net negative charge on complex ion?
- ✓
Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
- B
Diamminesilver(I)chloride
- C
- D
Tris(ethylenediamrnine) cobalt(III) chloride
AnswerCorrect option: A. Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
View full question & answer→MCQ 671 Mark
The term anomers of glucose refer to ____________.
- A
- ✓
isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
- C
a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
- D
isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)
AnswerCorrect option: B. isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
View full question & answer→MCQ 681 Mark
Which oxidation states CORRECTLY represent the usual range exhibited by the stated metal?
View full question & answer→MCQ 691 Mark
The coordination number of central metal atom/ion in a complex is ____________.
- ✓
the number of ligand donor atoms directly attached to it
- B
the number of only the anionic ligands directly attached to it
- C
twice the number of neutral ligands directly attached to it
- D
the number of only the monodentate ligands directly attached to it
AnswerCorrect option: A. the number of ligand donor atoms directly attached to it
View full question & answer→MCQ 701 Mark
Identify the coordinate complex having ambidentate ligand from following.
- ✓
Sodiumhexanitrito-N-cobaltate(III)
- B
Diamminesilver(I)Chloride
- C
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride
- D
Bariumtetrachlorocuprate(II)
AnswerCorrect option: A. Sodiumhexanitrito-N-cobaltate(III)
View full question & answer→MCQ 711 Mark
The electronic configuration of thorium (Z = 90) is ____________.
- A
$[R n] 5 f^1 6 d^0 7 s^2$
- B
$[ Rn ] 5 f ^0 6 d^0 7 s^2$
- C
$[ Rn ] 5 f^0 6 d^1 7 s^2$
- ✓
$[R n] 5 f^0 6 d^2 7 s^2$
AnswerCorrect option: D. $[R n] 5 f^0 6 d^2 7 s^2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 721 Mark
Identify the formula of lanthanoid oxide formed when lanthanoid (Ln) is burnt in oxygen.
- A
$LnO _2$
- B
$Ln _2 O$
- ✓
$Ln _2 O _3$
- D
$LnO$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $Ln _2 O _3$
View full question & answer→MCQ 731 Mark
Which of the following elements has lowest tendency to form its oxide?
View full question & answer→MCQ 741 Mark
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
- ✓
$TeO _3$ is acidic in nature.
- B
$SeCl _2$ has $sp ^3 d$ hybridization.
- C
$O _2 F_2$ is thermally stable at 298 K .
- D
$SnCl _2$ is more covalent than $SnCl _4$.
AnswerCorrect option: A. $TeO _3$ is acidic in nature.
View full question & answer→MCQ 751 Mark
Which of the following noble gas molecules is more polarized by water?
View full question & answer→MCQ 761 Mark
The half-life of a first order reaction is 6.0 hour. How long will it take for the concentration of reactant to decrease from 0.4 M to 0.12 M?
View full question & answer→MCQ 771 Mark
Consider the following elementary reaction; $\ce{2AB_{(g)} -> A2_{(g)} + B2_{(g)}}$
The molecularity of the reaction is ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 781 Mark
The standard emf of Daniel cell is 1.10 volt. What is the maximum electrical work obtained from Daniel cell? (F = 96500 C)
View full question & answer→MCQ 791 Mark
A conductivity cell dipped in $0.01 M AgNO _3$ solution gives a resistance of 3160 ohms . If cell constant is $0.47 cm^{-1}$, what is the conductivity of $AgNO _3$ solution?
- A
$1.487 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
- ✓
$1.487 \times 10^{-4} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
- C
$7.10 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
- D
$6.723 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $1.487 \times 10^{-4} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 801 Mark
Standard molar entropy is ______.
- A
the absolute entropy of one gram of a pure substance at 1 atm and 298 °C
- ✓
the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 25 °C
- C
the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 298 °C
- D
the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 700 mm pressure and 25 °C
AnswerCorrect option: B. the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 25 °C
View full question & answer→MCQ 811 Mark
What is the entropy change (in $J K ^{-1} mol^{-1}$ ) when one mole of ice is converted into water at $0^{\circ} C$ ? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is $6.0 kJ mol ^{-1}$ at $0^{\circ} C$ )
View full question & answer→MCQ 821 Mark
Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and y are −84 kJ and −156 kJ respectively. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- ✓
- B
Both x and y are unstable
- C
- D
x and y are endothermic compounds
View full question & answer→MCQ 831 Mark
An ideal gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 bar from an initial volume of $2.50 dm ^3$ to a final volume of $4.50 dm ^3$. The change in internal energy $(\Delta U)$ of the gas will be______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 841 Mark
Thermodynamics deals with ______.
- A
rates at which physical and chemical processes occur
- B
the path between the two states of the system
- C
microscopic properties of system
- ✓
macroscopic properties of the system
AnswerCorrect option: D. macroscopic properties of the system
View full question & answer→MCQ 851 Mark
At $T ( K )$, the molar ionic conductivities of $NH ^{\text {; }}$; and $OH ^{-}$at infinite dilution are 72 and $198 S cm ^2 mol^{-1}$ respectively. The molar conductivity of $0.01 M NH _4 OH$ solution at the same temperature is found to be $9 S cm ^2 mol^{-1}$. The percentage dissociation of $NH _4 OH$ at this concentration is .........
View full question & answer→MCQ 861 Mark
Solutions A, B, C and Dare respectively 0.2 M urea, $0.10 M NaCl ^2, 0.05 M BaCl _2$ and $0.05 M AlCl _3$. All solutions are isotonic with each other except ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 871 Mark
When 0.01 mole of sugar is dissolved in 100 g of a solvent, the depression in freezing point is 0.50°C. When 0.02 mole of glucose is dissolved in 50 g of the same solvent, the depression in freezing point will be ____________ °C.
View full question & answer→MCQ 881 Mark
When a cation or anion from ionic solid leaves its regular lattice site and moves to occupy an interstitial site, it is called as ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 891 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
AnswerCorrect option: B. In substitutional impurity defect, the impurity atoms occupy interstitial spaces of lattice structure.
View full question & answer→MCQ 901 Mark
____________ is an example of molecular crystal.
- A
$K _2 SO _{4(s)}$
- B
$NaCl _{( s )}$
- ✓
$SO _{2(s)}$
- D
$K _{( s )}$
AnswerCorrect option: C. $SO _{2(s)}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 911 Mark
Dow's process is used for the synthesis of an aromatic compound (X). Identify X.
View full question & answer→MCQ 921 Mark
In oxy-acetylene flame for welding and cutting of metals, a mixture of ____________ is used.
View full question & answer→MCQ 931 Mark
What is a common name of the compound 1-Chloro-2, 2-dimethylpropane?
View full question & answer→MCQ 941 Mark
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
- ✓
The oil in water emulsion can be diluted with water.
- B
The oil in water emulsion is miscible with oil.
- C
Electrical conductance of water in oil emulsion increases on addition of small amount of electrolyte.
- D
The water in oil emulsion is miscible with water.
AnswerCorrect option: A. The oil in water emulsion can be diluted with water.
View full question & answer→MCQ 951 Mark
The density of an ideal gas can be expressed as d = ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 961 Mark
When slaked lime is passed through excess $CO _2$, it forms ______.
AnswerCorrect option: A. $Ca \left( HCO _3\right)_2$
View full question & answer→MCQ 971 Mark
Which of the following is a redox reaction?
- A
$\ce{MgCO3 -> MgO + CO2}$
- ✓
$\ce{Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2}$
- C
$\ce{NaCl + KNO3 -> NaNO3 + KCl}$
- D
$\ce{CaC2O4 + 2HCl -> CaCl2 + H2C2O4}$
AnswerCorrect option: B. $\ce{Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2}$
View full question & answer→MCQ 981 Mark
Which of the following is less covalent than NaCl?
View full question & answer→MCQ 991 Mark
Which of the following is an isotone of `""_7^14"N"`?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1001 Mark
____________ states that equal volumes of all gases under identical conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.
- A
- ✓
- C
- D
Law of multiple proportions
View full question & answer→MCQ 1011 Mark
Identify the pioneer organisms that would appear on bare rocks.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1021 Mark
Identify the correct order of primary succession in water bodies.
- A
Free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
- B
Phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses, and trees.
- C
Phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
- ✓
Phytoplankton rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and trees.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Phytoplankton rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and trees.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1031 Mark
Identify the correct sequence of hydroseric succession.
- ✓
Phytoplankton → Rooted submerged → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
- B
Rooted submerged → Phytoplankton → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
- C
Phytoplankton → Reed swamp → Rooted submerged → Sedge meadow
- D
Phytoplankton → Sedge meadow → Reed swamp → Rooted submerged
AnswerCorrect option: A. Phytoplankton → Rooted submerged → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
View full question & answer→MCQ 1041 Mark
Match the Columns. | | Column I | | Column II |
| i. | Hibernation | a. | Birds in winter |
| ii. | Aestivation | b. | Polar bear in winter |
| iii. | Migration | c. | Some snails and fish in summer |
View full question & answer→MCQ 1051 Mark
In the given picture, identify the type of interspecific interaction.

View full question & answer→MCQ 1061 Mark
Mutualism can be represented as the interaction between ____________.
- ✓
algae and fungi in lichen
- B
- C
Cuscuta plant with host plant
- D
sea anemone and clown fish
AnswerCorrect option: A. algae and fungi in lichen
View full question & answer→MCQ 1071 Mark
On which of the following factors does the population growth of a country depends upon?
- A
- ✓
- C
Birth rate and immigration
- D
Death rate and emigration
View full question & answer→MCQ 1081 Mark
____________ organisms are tolerant for a wide range of salinities.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1091 Mark
Which of the following is the correct explanation of why a species creates its own unique niche in an ecosystem?
- A
It helps to increase competition among species living in same habitat
- B
- ✓
It helps to reduce competition for resources among species
- D
Many species share the same niche
AnswerCorrect option: C. It helps to reduce competition for resources among species
View full question & answer→MCQ 1101 Mark
Which of the following components are used for improving fish quality?
- ✓
- B
- C
Chicken crystalline protein
- D
E. coli hygromycin resistance gene
View full question & answer→MCQ 1111 Mark
For which of the following purpose Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) is used?
- ✓
- B
To treat pituitary dwarfism
- C
To promote formation of new blood vessels
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1121 Mark
Identify the correct term used to represent the DNA molecule formed by joining a gene coding for insulin to a plasmid pBR322 by using DNA ligase.
- A
- ✓
Both Recombinant DNA and Chimeric DNA
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Both Recombinant DNA and Chimeric DNA
View full question & answer→MCQ 1131 Mark
Study the following statements regarding $\text{cDNA}$ library and select the correct option.
$\text{(i)}$ Study the following statements regarding $\text{cDNA}$ library and select the correct option.
$ \text{(ii) DNA}$ is produced from isolated $\text{rRNA}$ by reverse transcription. The $\text{DNA}$ so made is called complementary $\text{DNA (cDNA)}$.
- A
Both statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are incorrect.
- ✓
Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
- C
Statement $\text{ii}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{i}$ is incorrect.
- D
Both statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
AnswerCorrect option: B. Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1141 Mark
The following identifies the major features of technology that differentiate modem biotechnology from classical biotechnology.
i. Capability of science to change the genetic material for getting new specific products through rDNA technology, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), microarrays, cell culture and fusion, and bioprocessing.
ii. Ownership of technology and its sociopolitical impact.
iii. Modem biotechnology makes use of only fermentation technology.
iv. Classical biotechnology relies only on principles of plant and animal tissue culture.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1151 Mark
Which of the following DNA sequence is recognised and cut by EcoR I?
- A
5'TACTTAAGCA3'
3'ATGAATTCGT5 '
- B
3'ACGAATTCAT5'
5'TGCITAAGTA3 '
- C
5'TGCTTAAGTA3 '
3 'ACGAA TTCAT5'
- ✓
5'ACGAAITCAT3 '
3 'TGCTT AAGT A5'
AnswerCorrect option: D. 5'ACGAAITCAT3 '
3 'TGCTT AAGT A5'
View full question & answer→MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following device is required for PCR?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1171 Mark
Match the List I with List II and List ill. Select the correct option. | | List I | | List II | | List ill |
| i. | Hind III | a. | Agarose ge | 1. | Six base pairs |
| ii. | pBR322 | b. | Agrobacterium | 2. | Selectable marke |
| iii. | T-DNA | c. | Ampicillin | 3. | Elution |
| iv. | DNA | d. | Recognition sequenc | 4. | Transgenic plant |
View full question & answer→MCQ 1181 Mark
______ refers to the process by which deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate is formed from deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1191 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding Mycorrhiza.
- ✓
It forms symbiotic association with rhizomes and roots of higher plants.
- B
It is a phosphate solubilizing bacteria.
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: A. It forms symbiotic association with rhizomes and roots of higher plants.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1201 Mark
Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement?
- A
Tyria moth controls the weed Senecio jacobaea c.
- B
Phytophthora palmivora controls milkweeds in orchards.
- C
Alternaria crassa controls water hyacinth.
- ✓
Fusarium spp. is an insecticidal herbicide.
AnswerCorrect option: D. Fusarium spp. is an insecticidal herbicide.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1211 Mark
______ stage is the last step of biogas production.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1221 Mark
Which of the following occurs during tertiary treatment?
- ✓
Anaerobic bacteria grow and digest the bacteria and fungi in sludge.
- B
All physical processes take place.
- C
Large pieces of floating debris are removed.
- D
The vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes takes place.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Anaerobic bacteria grow and digest the bacteria and fungi in sludge.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1231 Mark
Identify the organism used in the production of erythromycin.
- A
Streptomyces aureofaciens
- B
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1241 Mark
In plant tissue culture auxin is used for ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1251 Mark
Smack is obtained from the ____________ of poppy plant.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1261 Mark
The levels of which neurotransmitter are increased by using Cocaine?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1271 Mark
- A
Anti immune deficiency syndrome
- B
Auto immune deficiency syndrome
- ✓
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
- D
Acquired immune disease system
AnswerCorrect option: C. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
View full question & answer→MCQ 1281 Mark
Dengue is transmitted by ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1291 Mark
Identify the CORRECT match.
- A
| Disease | Pathogen |
| Ringworm | S. pneumoniae |
- ✓
| Disease | Pathogen |
| Pneumonia | H. influenzae |
- C
| Disease | Pathogen |
| Typhoid | Streptococcus typhi |
- D
| Disease | Pathogen |
| Ascariasis | Ascaris |
AnswerCorrect option: B. | Disease | Pathogen |
| Pneumonia | H. influenzae |
View full question & answer→MCQ 1301 Mark
Which of the following is NOT an example of ectoparasitism?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1311 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for the temporal lobe?
- A
Possesses visual area for the sense of vision
- B
Contains centres for smell and bearing
- C
Translates thought into speech
- ✓
Contains centres for speech and emotions
AnswerCorrect option: D. Contains centres for speech and emotions
View full question & answer→MCQ 1321 Mark
Identify the motor nerves.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1331 Mark
There are ____________ lumbar spinal nerves.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1341 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for medullated nerve fibre?
- A
Impulse conduction occurs at the rate of 120 m/br
- B
Impulse conduction is slower
- C
Continuous conduction takes place.
- ✓
Myelin sheath prevents flow of ions between axoplasm and ECF
AnswerCorrect option: D. Myelin sheath prevents flow of ions between axoplasm and ECF
View full question & answer→MCQ 1351 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
- ✓
Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse is faster as compared to chemical synapse.
- B
Transmission of impulse across chemical synapse is faster in comparison to electrical synapse.
- C
At chemical synapses, the membranes of pre-and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity
- D
Chemical synapses are rare in humans in comparison to electrical synapses.
AnswerCorrect option: A. Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse is faster as compared to chemical synapse.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1361 Mark
The structural and functional units of the nervous system is ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1371 Mark
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding thrombocytes?
- A
They possess a bilobed nucleus.
- ✓
Both they are essential in blood clotting and are also known as platelets.
- C
They are also known as platelets.
- D
They are essential in blood clotting.
AnswerCorrect option: B. Both they are essential in blood clotting and are also known as platelets.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1381 Mark
Identify the normal haemoglobin count in human females.
- A
- ✓
- C
- D
11.5-16.5 gm/l0ml of blood
View full question & answer→MCQ 1391 Mark
Reduction in number of ______ can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1401 Mark
When you hold your breath, identify the gas changes that occur in blood and would first lead to the urge to breathe.
- A
Falling $O _2$ concentration
- B
Rising $CO _2$ concentration
- ✓
Rising $CO _2$ and falling $O _2$ concentration
- D
Falling $CO _2$ concentration
AnswerCorrect option: C. Rising $CO _2$ and falling $O _2$ concentration
View full question & answer→MCQ 1411 Mark
______ of nasal chamber warms the air and makes it moist.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1421 Mark
______ refers to the physical process by which gaseous exchange takes place between the atmosphere and the lungs.
- A
- ✓
- C
Extracellular respiration
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1431 Mark
____________ refers to a biochemical process of oxidation of organic compounds in an orderly manner for the liberation of chemical energy in the form of ATP.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1441 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a physiological role of Gibberellin?
- A
Flowering in long day plants
- B
- C
Synthesis of hydrolysing enzyme amylase in wheat and barley
- ✓
Senescence and abscission
AnswerCorrect option: D. Senescence and abscission
View full question & answer→MCQ 1451 Mark
Suppression of the growth of ______ takes place due to auxin.
- ✓
- B
lateral and adventitious roots
- C
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 1461 Mark
Match the following lists and select the correct option. | | List I | | List II |
| i. | 2,4-D | a. | Promotes senescence and ripening of fruits |
| ii. | ABA | b. | DelaysJeaf senescence |
| iii. | Gibberellins | c. | Increases the length of the sugarcane stem |
| iv. | Ethylene | d. | Kills dicotyledonous weeds without affecting mature monocotyledonous plants |
| | | e. | Stimulates the closure of stomata |
- A
i - e, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
- B
i - d, ii - c, iii - e, iv - b
- C
i - c, ii - e, iii - b, iv - a
- ✓
i - d, ii - e, iii - c, iv - a
AnswerCorrect option: D. i - d, ii - e, iii - c, iv - a
View full question & answer→MCQ 1471 Mark
What is the proportion of hydrogen and oxygen in carbohydrates formed by plants during photosynthesis?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1481 Mark
Identify labels $\text{I, II, III}$ in the given figure of root showing different regions.

- A
zone of elongation
Root hair zone
Root cap
- B
Root hair zone
Meristematic zone
Root cap
- C
Maturation zone
Meristematic zone
Root hair zone
- ✓
Maturation zone
zone of elongation
Root cap
AnswerCorrect option: D. Maturation zone
zone of elongation
Root cap
Maturation zone
zone of elongation
Root cap
View full question & answer→MCQ 1491 Mark
In which of the following zones root hair occurs?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1501 Mark
Identify the type of water that is available to the plants.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1511 Mark
Root hair occurs in the zone of ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1521 Mark
____________ regions are present in a typical root.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1531 Mark
______ had cranial capacity almost equal to modern man.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1541 Mark
All are major changes that took place in evolution of man, EXCEPT
- A
- B
- ✓
Narrowing of pelvic girdle
- D
AnswerCorrect option: C. Narrowing of pelvic girdle
View full question & answer→MCQ 1551 Mark
The modem synthetic theory of evolution does NOT include ____________.
- A
Mutations and genetic recombination
- B
- C
- ✓
Inheritance of acquired characters
AnswerCorrect option: D. Inheritance of acquired characters
View full question & answer→MCQ 1561 Mark
Which of the following phenomena results in genetic recombination?
- ✓
Crossing over of genes to produce new genotypes
- B
Random fluctuations in allele frequency
- C
Loss of genes from the chromosome
- D
Change in gene and gene frequencies
AnswerCorrect option: A. Crossing over of genes to produce new genotypes
View full question & answer→MCQ 1571 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for zygote mortality?
- A
Sperm transfer takes place but egg is not fertilized.
- ✓
Egg is fertilized but zygote dies.
- C
Egg is fertilized and zygote is formed.
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Egg is fertilized but zygote dies.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1581 Mark
From the following identify the INCORRECT match.
- A
Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar - Ester bond
- B
Amino acids - Peptide bond
- ✓
Adenine and Thymine - Phosphodiester bond
- D
Monosaccharides - Glycosidic bond
AnswerCorrect option: C. Adenine and Thymine - Phosphodiester bond
View full question & answer→MCQ 1591 Mark
In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as ______
- A
there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense codons.
- B
64 amino acids are to be coded.
- ✓
The genetic code is a triplet.
- D
64 types of t-RNAs are present.
AnswerCorrect option: C. The genetic code is a triplet.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1601 Mark
The addition of nucleotides on the lagging strand occurs ____________ during DNA replication.
- A
towards the replicating fork
- B
at a faster rate than leading strand
- C
- ✓
View full question & answer→MCQ 1611 Mark
In which direction polymerization of DNA nucleotides occurs during the synthesis of lagging strand?
- A
- ✓
- C
- D
Towards the replication fork
View full question & answer→MCQ 1621 Mark
The chromatin is packed to form a solenoid structure of ______ diameter.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1631 Mark
Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the CORRECT answer | | Column-I | | Column-II |
| P. | Klinefelter syndrome | i. | Mutation in autosomal gene |
| Q. | Thalassaemia | ii. | Mutation sex chromosome linked gene |
| R. | Down syndrome | iii. | Trisomy of autosome |
| S. | Colour blindness | iv. | Trisomy of sex chromosome |
- ✓
P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii
- B
P - iv, Q - ii, R - iii, S - i
- C
P - ii, Q - iii, R- iv, S - i
- D
P - iii, Q - iv, R - i, S - ii
AnswerCorrect option: A. P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii
View full question & answer→MCQ 1641 Mark
Which type of sex determination is observed in honey bee?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1651 Mark
Holandric genes are found only in ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1661 Mark
Which type of progeny would be produced if a normal visioned man marries a colour-blind woman?
- A
Colour blind sons and 50% earner daughters
- B
Normal sons and carrier daughters.
- ✓
Colour blind sons and carrier daughters.
- D
50% colour blind sons and 50% colour blind daughters.
AnswerCorrect option: C. Colour blind sons and carrier daughters.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1671 Mark
The phenomenon of ____________ is universal and it is necessary for the natural selection, because it increases the chances of variation.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1681 Mark
Identify the statementls that is/are NOT the correct reason/s for Mendel's success in his hybridization experiments. i. Each factor controlled the single trait and is located on separate chromosomes.
ii. In the pea plant, contrasting characters can be easily recognized.
iii. Mendel carefully recorded the number of plants of each type and expressed his results as ratios.
iv. Mendel performed biochemical assays for identifying the position of 'factors' on chromosome.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1691 Mark
Which of the following hormones is produced by ovary?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1701 Mark
Identify the correct order of human embryo development.
- A
Cleavage, gastrulation, blastulation
- B
Blastulation, cleavage, gastrulation
- ✓
Cleavage, blastulation, gastrulation
- D
Gastrulation, blastulation, cleavage
AnswerCorrect option: C. Cleavage, blastulation, gastrulation
View full question & answer→MCQ 1711 Mark
Which is the correct order of steps occurring during spermatogenesis?
- A
Spermatid → spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatogonia
- B
Spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatid → spennatogonia
- ✓
Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → spermatozoa
- D
Spermatozoa → spermatogonia → spermatid → spermatocyte
AnswerCorrect option: C. Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → spermatozoa
View full question & answer→MCQ 1721 Mark
Which of the following occurs during maturation phase of spermatogenesis?
- ✓
The spermatocyte undergoes the first phase of meiotic division
- B
The primordial germ cells undergo mitotic division
- C
The spermatogonia undergoes meiotic division to form spermatozoa
- D
The spermatogonia develop into primary spermatocyte
AnswerCorrect option: A. The spermatocyte undergoes the first phase of meiotic division
View full question & answer→MCQ 1731 Mark
Complete the analogy. 1 primary spermatocyte : 4 spermatozoa :: 1 primary oocyte : ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1741 Mark
Identify the INCORRECTLY labelled structure in the given diagram of the male reproductive system.

View full question & answer→MCQ 1751 Mark
______ refers to the formation of seeds without fertilization.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1761 Mark
In which of the following pollination occurs?
- A
Bryophytes and angiosperms
- B
Pteridophytes and angiosperms
- C
- ✓
Angiosperms and gymnosperms
AnswerCorrect option: D. Angiosperms and gymnosperms
View full question & answer→MCQ 1771 Mark
Following figure represents monocot embryo Identify labels P, Q, Rand S.
- A
| P | Q | R | S |
| Epiblast | Coleoptile | Shoot apex | Coleorhiza |
- B
| P | Q | R | S |
| Shoot apex | Coleorhiza | Radicle | Coleoptile |
- C
| P | Q | R | S |
| Epiblast | Coleorhiza | Radicle | Coleoptile |
- ✓
| P | Q | R | S |
| Scutellum | Coleoptile | Root Cap | Coleorhiza |
AnswerCorrect option: D. | P | Q | R | S |
| Scutellum | Coleoptile | Root Cap | Coleorhiza |
View full question & answer→MCQ 1781 Mark
Which of the following induces pollen germination and tube growth in vitro?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1791 Mark
ln which of the following cross-pollination does not occur?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1801 Mark
Into which of the following the functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1811 Mark
The glomerulus filters most of its contents due to hydrostatic pressure created. This pressure is about ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1821 Mark
Which statement is INCORRECT regarding mechanism of urine formation in man?
- ✓
The counter-current systems contribute in diluting urine.
- B
Tubular secretion is the movement of substances from the blood into the tubular fluid.
- C
The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml per minute.
- D
Aldosterone is an important hormone in the RAAS mechanism.
AnswerCorrect option: A. The counter-current systems contribute in diluting urine.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1831 Mark
The DCT of the nephron is important as it will ______
- A
Maintain Na-K balance in the blood
- ✓
Both Maintain Na-K balance in the blood and Maintain the pH of the blood
- C
- D
AnswerCorrect option: B. Both Maintain Na-K balance in the blood and Maintain the pH of the blood
View full question & answer→MCQ 1841 Mark
In cases of dehydration, the JG cells will release ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1851 Mark
Organisms which require about 300 - 500 ml of water per gm of ammonia for their excretion are ______.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1861 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Marasmus?
- A
- ✓
- C
Atrophy of digestive glands
- D
Retardation of mental development
View full question & answer→MCQ 1871 Mark
Which of the following digestive juices contains the enzyme maltase?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1881 Mark
Which is true for actvity of enzyme pepsin?
- ✓
It requires an acidic medium in the stomach.
- B
It requires an alkaline medium in the intestine.
- C
It requires an acidic medium in the pancreas.
- D
It requires an alkaline medium in the mouth.
AnswerCorrect option: A. It requires an acidic medium in the stomach.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1891 Mark
____________ secrete intrinsic factor.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1901 Mark
The crown of the tooth is covered by the hardest substance of the body called the ____________.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1911 Mark
Which of the following enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1921 Mark
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is ____________.
- ✓
decarboxylated to acetaldehyde
- B
phospborylated to acetaldehyde
- C
decarboxylated to lactic acid
- D
deoxygenated to acetaldehyde
AnswerCorrect option: A. decarboxylated to acetaldehyde
View full question & answer→MCQ 1931 Mark
Which type of reaction is TCA cycle?
View full question & answer→MCQ 1941 Mark
____________ ATPs will be effectively produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl-CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1951 Mark
____________ is necessary for the respiration in plant.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1961 Mark
Study the following statements with respect to enzymes and select the correct option.
$\text{(i)}$ Most of the enzymes work at an optimum temperature between $20^\circ C$ and $35^\circ C$.
$\text{(ii)}$ Enzymes are destroyed at lower temperature of $10-20^\circ C$.
$\text{(iii)}$ Each enzyme exhibits its highest activity at a specific $pH$ i.e. optimum $pH$.
- A
Statement $\text{i, ii }$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
- ✓
Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
- C
Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
- D
Statement $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
AnswerCorrect option: B. Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
View full question & answer→MCQ 1971 Mark
Nucleotides = ____________.
- A
Purine + Pyrimidine + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
- B
Pyrimidine + Monosaccharide + ATP
- ✓
Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
- D
Purine + Pyrimidine + Phosphate
AnswerCorrect option: C. Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
View full question & answer→MCQ 1981 Mark
Identify (i) and (ii) and select the correct option. i. Protein portion of the enzyme is called the ____________.
ii. Non-protein constituent binding to the enzyme is called as the ____________.
- A
i - factor; ii - proenzyme
- B
i - co-factor; ii - apoenzyme
- ✓
i - apoenzyme; ii - co-factor
- D
i - proenzyme; ii - factor
AnswerCorrect option: C. i - apoenzyme; ii - co-factor
View full question & answer→MCQ 1991 Mark
____________ is a structural component of the cell.
- ✓
- B
- C
Both Chromoprotein and Lipoprotein
- D
View full question & answer→MCQ 2001 Mark
From the following identify the group that is exclusively consists of polysaccharides.
- A
Maltose, galactose, cellulose
- B
Erythrose, starch, cellulose
- ✓
Cellulose, starch, chitin
- D
Glycogen, lactose, starch
AnswerCorrect option: C. Cellulose, starch, chitin
View full question & answer→