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MCQ

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200 questions · auto-graded multiple-choice test.

MCQ 11 Mark
In the case of transistor, the relation between current ratios $\alpha_{ dc }$ and $\beta_{ dc }$ is ______.
  • A
    $`beta_"dc"=(1-alpha_"dc")/alpha_"dc"`$
  • $`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1-alpha_"dc")`$
  • C
    $`beta_"dc"=(1+alpha_"dc")/alpha_"dc"`$
  • D
    $`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1+alpha_"dc")`$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$`beta_"dc"=alpha_"dc"/(1-alpha_"dc")`$
B
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MCQ 21 Mark
In switching circuit, transistor is in ON state and values of $I _{ C }$ and $I _{ B }$ are 4.2 mA and $5 \mu A$ respectively and $R _{ C }=1$ $k^{\prime} O$ mega and $R _{ B }=300 k ^{\prime}$ Omega'. If $V _{ BE }=0.5 V$, find the value of $V _{ BB }$.
  • 2 V
  • B
    5 V
  • C
    5.5 V
  • D
    2.5 V
Answer
Correct option: A.
2 V
A
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MCQ 31 Mark
After 1 hour, `(1/8)^"th"` of the initial mass of a certain radioactive isotope remains undecayed. The half-life of the isotopes is ______.
  • A
    40 minutes
  • B
    10 minutes
  • 20 minutes
  • D
    80 minutes
Answer
Correct option: C.
20 minutes
C
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MCQ 41 Mark
The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of `""^9""_4"Be"`. The number of nucleons in Ge will be ____________.
  • A
    75
  • 72
  • C
    73
  • D
    74
Answer
Correct option: B.
72
B
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MCQ 51 Mark
When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from third excited state to the ground state, the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron becomes ____________.
  • A
    `(1/3)^"rd"`
  • B
    `(2/3)^"rd"`
  • `(1/4)^"th"`
  • D
    half
Answer
Correct option: C.
`(1/4)^"th"`
C
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MCQ 61 Mark
Which of the following models was successful in explaining the observed hydrogen spectrum?
  • A
    Thomson 's model
  • Bohr's model
  • C
    Classical model
  • D
    Rutherford's model
Answer
Correct option: B.
Bohr's model
B
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MCQ 71 Mark
According to Rutherford's model of an atom, ______
  • A
    both positive and negative charges are distributed equally in two hemispheres of an atom.
  • B
    both positive and negative charges are randomly distributed in the atom.
  • C
    all negative charge is concentrated at the centre of an atom.
  • all the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region at the centre of an atom.
Answer
Correct option: D.
all the positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small region at the centre of an atom.
D
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MCQ 81 Mark
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is ( c being velocity of light) ______.
  • A
    `"c"(2"mE")^(1/2)`
  • `1/"c"(("E")/(2"m"))^(1/2)`
  • C
    `(("E")/(2"m"))^(1/2)`
  • D
    `1/"c"((2"m")/("E"))^(1/2)`
Answer
Correct option: B.
`1/"c"(("E")/(2"m"))^(1/2)`
B
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MCQ 91 Mark
When light of wavelength '`lambda`' is incident on photosensitive surface, photons of power 'P' are emitted. The number of photons (n) emitted in 't' second is (h = Planck's constant, c = velocity of light in vacuum) ____________.
  • A
    `("P"lambda)/"htc"`
  • B
    `"hP"/(lambda"tc")`
  • `("P"lambda"t")/"hc"`
  • D
    `"hc"/("P"lambda"t")`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`("P"lambda"t")/"hc"`
C
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MCQ 101 Mark
In series resonance, LCR circuit, below the resonant frequency, the circuit is ____________.
  • A
    both resistive and inductive
  • B
    resistive
  • capacitive
  • D
    inductive
Answer
Correct option: C.
capacitive
C
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MCQ 111 Mark
In series 'LR' circuit and in series 'RC' circuit, same current is flowing. If the frequency of e.m.f. of a.c. is increased for both the circuits, the impedance will ____________.
  • A
    decrease in both the circuits
  • B
    increase in both the circuits
  • increase in 'LR' circuit and decrease in 'RC' circuit
  • D
    decrease in 'LR' circuit and increase in 'RC' circuit
Answer
Correct option: C.
increase in 'LR' circuit and decrease in 'RC' circuit
C
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MCQ 121 Mark
In a series LCR circuit R = 300 Ω, L = 0.9 H, C = 2 µF, ω = 1000 rad/s. The impedance of the circuit is ______
  • A
    900 Ω
  • B
    1300 Ω
  • 500 Ω
  • D
    400 Ω
Answer
Correct option: C.
500 Ω
C
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MCQ 131 Mark
Magnetic flux of 12 microweber is linked with a coil. When current of 3 mA flows through it, the self inductance of the coil is ____________.
  • 4 mH
  • B
    4 H
  • C
    4 µH
  • D
    4 kH
Answer
Correct option: A.
4 mH
A
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MCQ 141 Mark
A coil of area $A=0.8 m^2$ is situated in a uniform magnetic field $B=6.0 Wb / m 2$ and makes an angle of $60^{\circ}$ with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the magnetic flux through the area A would be equal to ______.
Image
  • A
    1 weber
  • 2.4 weber
  • C
    `3/2` weber
  • D
    4.2 weber
Answer
Correct option: B.
2.4 weber
B
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MCQ 151 Mark
The magnetic property of magnetic substance is associated with ____________.
  • orbital and spin motion of electrons
  • B
    only spin motion of electrons
  • C
    spin motion of the nucleus
  • D
    only orbital motion of electrons
Answer
Correct option: A.
orbital and spin motion of electrons
A
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MCQ 161 Mark
What is the magnetization of a bar magnet having length 5 cm and area of cross section $2 cm^2$ ? $\left( M =1 Am ^2\right)$
  • A
    $10^{-5} A / m$
  • B
    $10^4 A / m$
  • $10^5 A / m$
  • D
    $10^{-4} A / m$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$10^5 A / m$
C
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MCQ 171 Mark
A 600 turn coil of effective area $0.05 m^2$ is kept perpendicular to a magnetic field $4 \times 10^{-5} T$. When the plane of the coil is rotated by $90^{\circ}$ around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s , the e.m.f. induced in the coil will be: ____________.
  • $12 \times 10^{-3} V$
  • B
    $12 \times 10^{-2} V$
  • C
    $12 \times 10^{-5} V$
  • D
    $12 \times 10^{-4} V$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$12 \times 10^{-3} V$
A
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MCQ 181 Mark
Magnetic dipole moment `vec"m"` of the coil, placed in uniform magnetic field of induction `vec"B"` does not depend on ____________.
  • magnetic field of induction
  • B
    number of turns of coil
  • C
    area of the cross-section
  • D
    current through coil
Answer
Correct option: A.
magnetic field of induction
A
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MCQ 191 Mark
A straight wire of length 50 cm carrying a current of 6 A is suspended in mid-air by a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T (as shown in figure). The mass of the wire is ______.

(g = 10` "ms"^-2`)

  • 0.12 g
  • B
    100 g
  • C
    62.5 g
  • D
    125 g
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.12 g
A
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MCQ 201 Mark
A galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω is connected to a battery of 2V, with a resistance of 1900 Ω in series. The deflection obtained is 30 divisions. To reduce this deflection by 10 divisions, the additional resistance required to be connected in series is ______
  • A
    500 Ω
  • 1000 Ω
  • C
    1500 Ω
  • D
    2000 Ω
Answer
Correct option: B.
1000 Ω
B
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MCQ 211 Mark
To convert galvanometer into an ammeter one has to connect ____________.
  • A
    high resistance in parallel
  • low resistance in parallel
  • C
    low resistance in series
  • D
    high resistance is series
Answer
Correct option: B.
low resistance in parallel
B
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MCQ 221 Mark
A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10 `Omega.` It is connected in series with a resistance and an accumulator of e.m.f 2 V and of negligible internal resistance. A source of e.m.f 10 mV is balanced against a 40 cm length of the potentiometer wire. The value of the external resistance is ____________.
  • A
    `405 Omega`
  • B
    `810 Omega`
  • C
    `395 Omega`
  • `790 Omega`
Answer
Correct option: D.
`790 Omega`
D
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MCQ 231 Mark
ln, a Wheatstone network, P = Q = R = 8 `Omega` and S is 10 `Omega`. The required resistance to be connected to S so that network is balanced is ______.
  • A
    48 `Omega` in parallel
  • B
    24 `Omega` in parallel
  • 40 `Omega` in parallel
  • D
    32 `Omega` in parallel
Answer
Correct option: C.
40 `Omega` in parallel
C
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MCQ 241 Mark
The potential difference $\left(V_A-V_B\right)$ between the points A and B in the given figure is ______. 
Image
  • +9 V
  • B
    +6 V
  • C
    +3 V
  • D
    -3 V
Answer
Correct option: A.
+9 V
A
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MCQ 251 Mark
Capacitors of capacities $C _1, C _2$, and $C _3$ are connected in series. If the combination is connected to a supply of 'V' volt, then the potential difference across capacitor $C_1$ is ______
  • A
    $`V/(C_1 + C_2 + C_3)`$
  • B
    $`(C_1C_2C_3)/V`$
  • C
    $`(C_2C_3 + C_1C_3 + C_1C_2)/(C_2C_3V)`$
  • $`(C_2C_3V)/(C_2C_3 + C_1C_3 + C_1C_2)`$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$`(C_2C_3V)/(C_2C_3 + C_1C_3 + C_1C_2)`$
D
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MCQ 261 Mark
The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by $V=4 x^2$volt. The electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is ____________.
  • A
    8 along positive X - axis
  • B
    16 along positive Z- axis
  • 8 along negative X - axis
  • D
    16 along negative X - axis
Answer
Correct option: C.
8 along negative X - axis
C
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MCQ 271 Mark
A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 4 m away. The distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is ______.
  • 4.8 mm
  • B
    l.2 cm
  • C
    4.8 cm
  • D
    1.2 mm
Answer
Correct option: A.
4.8 mm
A
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MCQ 281 Mark
The graph shows the variation of fringe width (β) versus distance of the screen from the plane of the slits (D) in Young's double-slit experiment Keeping other parameters the same. The wavelength of light used can be calculated as d = distance between the slits ______ 
Image
  • A
    d/slope of graph
  • the slope of graph $\times d$
  • C
    the slope of graph $\times d^2$
  • D
    slope of graph/d
Answer
Correct option: B.
the slope of graph $\times d$
B
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MCQ 291 Mark
For a radiation of 9 GHz passing through air. The number of waves passing through 1 m length is ____________.
  • A
    5
  • B
    30
  • 20
  • D
    3
Answer
Correct option: C.
20
C
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MCQ 301 Mark
In melde's experiment, when the tension decreases by 0.009 kg-wt, the number of loops changes from 4 to 5. The initial tension is ______.
  • 0.025 kg-wt
  • B
    0.009 kg-wt
  • C
    0.018 kg-wt
  • D
    0.036 kg-wt
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.025 kg-wt
A
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MCQ 311 Mark
The amplitude of a wave represented by equation `"y" = 1/(sqrt"a") "sin" omega"t" pm 1/(sqrt"b") "cos" omega"t"` will be ____________.
  • A
    `(sqrt"a" pm sqrt"b")/"ab"`
  • B
    `("a" + "b")/"ab"`
  • C
    `(sqrt"a" + sqrt"b")/"ab"`
  • `sqrt(("a" + "b")/"ab")`
Answer
Correct option: D.
`sqrt(("a" + "b")/"ab")`
D
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MCQ 321 Mark
An `alpha` - particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by gold nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of ______.
  • A
    $10^{-10} cm$
  • $10^{-12} cm$
  • C
    $10^{-16} cm$
  • D
    $10^{-14} cm$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$10^{-12} cm$
B
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MCQ 331 Mark
If the length of an oscillating simple pendulum is made `1/3` times at a place keeping amplitude the same, then its total energy (E) will be ______
  • A
    4E
  • B
    6E
  • C
    2E
  • 3E
Answer
Correct option: D.
3E
D
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MCQ 341 Mark
The pointer reading v/s load graph for a spring balance is as given in the figure. The spring constant is ______. 
Image
  • A
    0.1 kg/cm
  • 0.04 kg/cm
  • C
    15 kg/cm
  • D
    40 kg/cm
Answer
Correct option: B.
0.04 kg/cm
B
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MCQ 351 Mark
Given that 'p' joule of heat is incident on a body and out of it 'q' joule is reflected and transmitted by it. The absorption coefficient of the body is ____________.
  • A
    q/p
  • (p - q)/p
  • C
    p/q
  • D
    (q - p)/p
Answer
Correct option: B.
(p - q)/p
B
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MCQ 361 Mark
The average K.E. of hydrogen molecules at 27° C is E. The average K.E. at 627° C is ____________.
  • A
    4 K.E.
  • 3 K.E.
  • C
    2 K.E.
  • D
    `sqrt2` K.E.
Answer
Correct option: B.
3 K.E.
B
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MCQ 371 Mark
A metal coin of thickness 'd' and density 'ρ' is floating on water of surface tension 'T'. The radius of the coin is ______.

g = acceleration due to gravity

  • A
    `T/(rhogd)`
  • B
    `(4T)/(3rhogd)`
  • `(2T)/(rhogd)`
  • D
    `(3T)/(4rhogd)`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`(2T)/(rhogd)`
C
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MCQ 381 Mark
When a mercury drop of radius 'R', breaks into 'n' droplets of equal size, the radius 'r' of each droplet is ______.
  • `r="R"/"n"^(1/3)`
  • B
    `r="R"/"n"`
  • C
    `r="R n"^(1/3)`
  • D
    `r=R/sqrt"n"`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`r="R"/"n"^(1/3)`
A
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MCQ 391 Mark
Two bodies with moments of inertia $I _1$ and $I _2\left( I _1> I _2\right)$ have equal angular momenta. If $E _1$ and $E _2$ are their rotational kinetic energies respectively, then ____________.
  • $E_1<E_2$
  • B
    $E _1=$ `sqrt2` $E_2$
  • C
    $E_1 > E_2$
  • D
    $E _1= E _2$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$E_1<E_2$
A
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MCQ 401 Mark
A motorcyclist rides in a horizontal circle about central vertical axis inside a cylindrical chamber of radius 'r'. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the inner surface of chamber is 'µ', the minimum speed of motorcyclist to prevent him from skidding is ______.

('g' =acceleration due to gravity)

  • `sqrt((rg)/mu)`
  • B
    `sqrt((rmu)/g)`
  • C
    `sqrt(g/(rmu))`
  • D
    `sqrt((mug)/r)`
Answer
Correct option: A.
`sqrt((rg)/mu)`
A
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MCQ 411 Mark
In insulators, ____________.
  • A
    The valence band is partially filled with electrons
  • B
    The conduction band is filled with electrons and valence band is empty
  • C
    The conduction band is partially filled with electrons
  • The conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons
Answer
Correct option: D.
The conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons
D
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MCQ 421 Mark
Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges $+10 \mu C$ and $-20 \mu C$ respectively and placed at a distance $R$ from each other experience force $F_1$. If they are brought in contact and separated to the same distance, they experience force $F_2$. The ratio of $F_1$ to $F_2$ is...............
  • A
    - 2 : 1
  • B
    1 : 8
  • - 8 : 1
  • D
    1 : 2
Answer
Correct option: C.
- 8 : 1
C
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MCQ 431 Mark
A point object is placed at a distance of 25 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 25 cm. The image will form at ____________.
  • 12.5 cm behind the mirror
  • B
    focus
  • C
    infinity
  • D
    pole
Answer
Correct option: A.
12.5 cm behind the mirror
A
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MCQ 441 Mark
Assertion: The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.

Reason: The speed of sound in gases is proportional to the square of pressure.

  • A
    Assertion is True, Reason is True: Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion
  • Assertion is False, Reason is False
  • C
    Assertion is True. Reason is True: Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion
  • D
    Assertion is True, Reason is False
Answer
Correct option: B.
Assertion is False, Reason is False
B
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MCQ 451 Mark
In a closed pipe, the note of fundamental frequency can be produced if the length of the air column is equal to ____________.
  • A
    same as the wavelength
  • B
    half the wavelength
  • C
    three quarters of the wavelength
  • quarter the wavelength
Answer
Correct option: D.
quarter the wavelength
D
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MCQ 461 Mark
1 litre of an ideal gas at 27 °C is heated at a constant pressure to 127 °C. The final volume is approximately ______.
  • A
    13 litre
  • B
    0.75 litre
  • 1.3 litre.
  • D
    7.5 litre
Answer
Correct option: C.
1.3 litre.
C
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MCQ 471 Mark
If the Earth-Sun distance is held constant and the mass of the Sun is doubled, then the period of revolution of the earth around the Sun will change to ____________.
  • A
    (1/2) year
  • B
    2 years
  • C
    `sqrt2`
  • `1//sqrt2` year
Answer
Correct option: D.
`1//sqrt2` year
D
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MCQ 481 Mark
The magnitudes of the gravitational potentials at distances $r_1$ and $r_2$ from the centre of a uniform sphere of radius $R$ and mass M are $V _1$ and $V _2$ respectively. Then............
  • $`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1^2/"r"_2^2` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
  • B
    $`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1/"r"_2` ; if r_1 > R and r_2 > R.$
  • C
    $`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_2^2/"r"_1^2` ; if r_1 > R and r_2 > R.$
  • D
    $`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_2/"r"_1` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$`"V"_1/"V"_2 = "r"_1^2/"r"_2^2` ; if r_1 < R and r_2 < R.$
A
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MCQ 491 Mark
5 m long see-saw remains horizontal when two children weighing 20 kg and 30 kg respectively sit at two ends. Where is the see-saw supported?
  • A
    4 m from 20 kg
  • 3 m from 20 kg
  • C
    3.5 m from 30 kg
  • D
    2.5 m from 30 kg
Answer
Correct option: B.
3 m from 20 kg
B
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MCQ 501 Mark
Two cars of masses ' $m_1$ ', and ' $m_2$ ' are moving in the circles of radii ' $r_1$ ' and ' $r_2$ ' respectively. Their angular peed ' $\omega_1$ ' and ' $\omega_2$ ' are such that they both complete one revolution in the same time ' $t$ '. The ratio of linear speed of ' $m_1{ }^{\prime}$ ' to the linear speed of ' $m_2$ ' is ..........
  • A
    $`omega_1^2 : omega_2^2`$
  • $r_1: r_2$
  • C
    $m_1: m_2$
  • D
    $`T_1^2 : T_2^2`$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$r_1: r_2$
B
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MCQ 511 Mark
What is the number of $\begin{array}{cc}\\\backslash\phantom{.......}\\\phantom{}\ce{C = O}\\/\phantom{........}\end{array}$ groups present in nitrogen bases of nucleic acids, thymine and uracil respectively?
  • A
    2 and 1
  • 2 and 2
  • C
    1 and 1
  • D
    1 and 2
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 and 2
B
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MCQ 521 Mark
How many moles of acetic acid are obtained in the reaction when one mole glucose is treated with excess acetic anhydride?
  • A
    3 moles
  • 5 moles
  • C
    2 moles
  • D
    4 moles
Answer
Correct option: B.
5 moles
B
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MCQ 531 Mark
Which among the following reagents is used for conversion of glucose to glucoxime?
  • A
    $Br _2$ water
  • B
    Dilute Nitric acid
  • Hydroxylamine
  • D
    HCN
Answer
Correct option: C.
Hydroxylamine
C
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MCQ 541 Mark
Select the CORRECT option about the following reaction.

$\ce{CH3 - CH2 - N^+(CH3)3 - I^- ->[Moist][Ag2O] X ->[\Delta] Y + Z + H2O}$

  • The product X is strongly basic.
  • B
    The reaction is called Hofmann exhaustive alkylation.
  • C
    The tertiary amine (Z) formed in the reaction is triethylamine
  • D
    The alkene (Y) formed in the reaction is propene.
Answer
Correct option: A.
The product X is strongly basic.
A
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MCQ 551 Mark
In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be _______________.
  • A
    $C _6 H _5 NH _2> NH _3>\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH$
  • B
    $NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2>\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH$
  • C
    $\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > C _6 H _5 NH _2> NH _3$
  • $\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\left( C _2 H _5\right)_2 NH > NH _3> C _6 H _5 NH _2$
D
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MCQ 561 Mark
IUPAC name of p-toluidine is ____________.
  • A
    benzenamine
  • B
    cyclohexanamine
  • 4-methylaniline
  • D
    phenylmetbanamine
Answer
Correct option: C.
4-methylaniline
C
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MCQ 571 Mark
What amount of dinitrogen contains $3.6 \times 10^{18}$molecules?
  • 0.167 mg
  • B
    0.280 mg
  • C
    1.67 mg
  • D
    2.80 mg
Answer
Correct option: A.
0.167 mg
A
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MCQ 581 Mark
Acetone reacts with iodine $(I_2)$ to form iodoform, in the presence of ____________.
  • A
    $MgCO _3$
  • $NaOH$
  • C
    $CaCO _3$
  • D
    $K_2 SO _4$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$NaOH$
B
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MCQ 591 Mark
In the Wolff-Kishner reduction of alkyl aryl ketones, ketones are first converted into ____________.
  • A
    alcohols
  • B
    acids
  • C
    alkenes
  • hydrazones
Answer
Correct option: D.
hydrazones
D
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MCQ 601 Mark
$\ce{(CH3)2CH - O - CH3 ->[Cold HI] X + Y}$

$\ce{X ->[K2Cr2O7][dil. H2SO4] Z}$

$\ce{Y ->[NaOH(aq)][\Delta] CH3OH}$

Identify X, Y and Z.

  • A
    X - Propan-2-ol

    Y - Methanol

    Z - Propanone

  • B
    X - 2-Iodopropane

    Y - Iodomethane

    Z - Propanone

  • X - Propan-2-ol

    Y - Iodomethane

    Z - Propanone

  • D
    X - Propan-1-ol

    Y - Iodomethane

    Z - Propanal

Answer
Correct option: C.
X - Propan-2-ol

Y - Iodomethane

Z - Propanone

C
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MCQ 611 Mark
Phenoxide ion is more stable than phenol due to the ____________.
  • A
    delocalisation of positive charge in phenoxide ion
  • B
    resonating structures of benzene ring
  • C
    negative charge on oxygen atom
  • delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion
Answer
Correct option: D.
delocalisation of negative charge in phenoxide ion
D
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MCQ 621 Mark
In propylene glycerol, −OH groups are attached to ____________ carbon atoms.
  • A
    six primary
  • B
    one primary and two secondary
  • C
    three primary and zero secondary
  • two primary and one secondary
Answer
Correct option: D.
two primary and one secondary
D
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MCQ 631 Mark
Which of the following is FALSE regarding $S_N 2$ reaction mechanism?
  • Polar solvent is favourable.
  • B
    Simultaneous bond making and bond breaking occurs.
  • C
    Strong nucleophile is favourable.
  • D
    The rate of reaction decreases as the alkyl halide changes from $1^{\circ}$ to $2^{\circ}$ to $3^{\circ}$.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Polar solvent is favourable.
A
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MCQ 641 Mark
The compound with the lowest boiling point is ____________.
  • A
    n-propyl alcohol
  • n-butane
  • C
    acetic acid
  • D
    ethyl methyl ether
Answer
Correct option: B.
n-butane
B
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MCQ 651 Mark
Which of the following compounds is obtained when t-butyl bromide is treated with alcoholic ammonia?
  • A
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \ce{CH3}\phantom{....}\\
    |\phantom{.......}\\
    \ce{CH3 - C - CH2 - NH2}\\
    |\phantom{.......}\\
    \ce{Br}\phantom{......}
    \end{array}$
  • B
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{...}\ce{CH3}\\
    |\\
    \ce{CH3 - C - CH3}\\
    |\\
    \phantom{...}\ce{NH2}
    \end{array}$
  • C
    $\begin{array}{cc}
    \phantom{...}\ce{CH3}\\
    |\\
    \ce{CH3 - C - CH3}\\
    |\\
    \phantom{.....}\ce{NHBr}
    \end{array}$
  • $\begin{array}{cc}
    \ce{CH3 - C = CH2}\\
    |\phantom{.}\\
    \phantom{..}\ce{CH3}
    \end{array}$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$\begin{array}{cc}
\ce{CH3 - C = CH2}\\
|\phantom{.}\\
\phantom{..}\ce{CH3}
\end{array}$
D
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MCQ 661 Mark
Which coordinate compound from following has a net negative charge on complex ion?
  • Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
  • B
    Diamminesilver(I)chloride
  • C
    Tetracarbonylnickel(0)
  • D
    Tris(ethylenediamrnine) cobalt(III) chloride
Answer
Correct option: A.
Potassiumtrioxalatoaluminate (III)
A
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MCQ 671 Mark
The term anomers of glucose refer to ____________.
  • A
    enantiomers of glucose
  • isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
  • C
    a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-glucose
  • D
    isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)
Answer
Correct option: B.
isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C-1)
B
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MCQ 681 Mark
Which oxidation states CORRECTLY represent the usual range exhibited by the stated metal?
  • A
    Yb; +3, +4, +5 and +6
  • B
    No; +2 and +4
  • Ce; +3 and +4
  • D
    Lr; +2, +3 and +4
Answer
Correct option: C.
Ce; +3 and +4
C
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MCQ 691 Mark
The coordination number of central metal atom/ion in a complex is ____________.
  • the number of ligand donor atoms directly attached to it
  • B
    the number of only the anionic ligands directly attached to it
  • C
    twice the number of neutral ligands directly attached to it
  • D
    the number of only the monodentate ligands directly attached to it
Answer
Correct option: A.
the number of ligand donor atoms directly attached to it
A
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MCQ 701 Mark
Identify the coordinate complex having ambidentate ligand from following.
  • Sodiumhexanitrito-N-cobaltate(III)
  • B
    Diamminesilver(I)Chloride
  • C
    Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride
  • D
    Bariumtetrachlorocuprate(II)
Answer
Correct option: A.
Sodiumhexanitrito-N-cobaltate(III)
A
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MCQ 711 Mark
The electronic configuration of thorium (Z = 90) is ____________.
  • A
    $[R n] 5 f^1 6 d^0 7 s^2$
  • B
    $[ Rn ] 5 f ^0 6 d^0 7 s^2$
  • C
    $[ Rn ] 5 f^0 6 d^1 7 s^2$
  • $[R n] 5 f^0 6 d^2 7 s^2$
Answer
Correct option: D.
$[R n] 5 f^0 6 d^2 7 s^2$
D
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MCQ 721 Mark
Identify the formula of lanthanoid oxide formed when lanthanoid (Ln) is burnt in oxygen.
  • A
    $LnO _2$
  • B
    $Ln _2 O$
  • $Ln _2 O _3$
  • D
    $LnO$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$Ln _2 O _3$
C
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MCQ 731 Mark
Which of the following elements has lowest tendency to form its oxide?
  • A
    Al
  • B
    Cr
  • Hg
  • D
    Fe
Answer
Correct option: C.
Hg
C
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MCQ 741 Mark
Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
  • $TeO _3$ is acidic in nature.
  • B
    $SeCl _2$ has $sp ^3 d$ hybridization.
  • C
    $O _2 F_2$ is thermally stable at 298 K .
  • D
    $SnCl _2$ is more covalent than $SnCl _4$.
Answer
Correct option: A.
$TeO _3$ is acidic in nature.
A
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MCQ 751 Mark
Which of the following noble gas molecules is more polarized by water?
  • A
    Neon
  • B
    Helium
  • C
    Argon
  • Krypton
Answer
Correct option: D.
Krypton
D
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MCQ 761 Mark
The half-life of a first order reaction is 6.0 hour. How long will it take for the concentration of reactant to decrease from 0.4 M to 0.12 M?
  • 10.42 h
  • B
    30.36 h
  • C
    4.25 h
  • D
    9.51 h
Answer
Correct option: A.
10.42 h
A
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MCQ 771 Mark
Consider the following elementary reaction;

$\ce{2AB_{(g)} -> A2_{(g)} + B2_{(g)}}$

The molecularity of the reaction is ____________.

  • 2
  • B
    1
  • C
    4
  • D
    3
Answer
Correct option: A.
2
A
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MCQ 781 Mark
The standard emf of Daniel cell is 1.10 volt. What is the maximum electrical work obtained from Daniel cell? (F = 96500 C)
  • A
    175.4 kJ
  • 212.3 kJ
  • C
    57.07 kJ
  • D
    106.15 kJ
Answer
Correct option: B.
212.3 kJ
B
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MCQ 791 Mark
A conductivity cell dipped in $0.01 M AgNO _3$ solution gives a resistance of 3160 ohms . If cell constant is $0.47 cm^{-1}$, what is the conductivity of $AgNO _3$ solution?
  • A
    $1.487 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • $1.487 \times 10^{-4} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • C
    $7.10 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
  • D
    $6.723 \times 10^{-2} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$1.487 \times 10^{-4} \Omega^{-1} cm^{-1}$
B
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MCQ 801 Mark
Standard molar entropy is ______.
  • A
    the absolute entropy of one gram of a pure substance at 1 atm and 298 °C
  • the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 25 °C
  • C
    the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 298 °C
  • D
    the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 700 mm pressure and 25 °C
Answer
Correct option: B.
the absolute entropy of one mole of a pure substance at 1 atm and 25 °C
B
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MCQ 811 Mark
What is the entropy change (in $J K ^{-1} mol^{-1}$ ) when one mole of ice is converted into water at $0^{\circ} C$ ? (The enthalpy change for the conversion of ice to liquid water is $6.0 kJ mol ^{-1}$ at $0^{\circ} C$ )
  • A
    2.198
  • 21.98
  • C
    2.013
  • D
    20.13
Answer
Correct option: B.
21.98
B
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MCQ 821 Mark
Enthalpy of formation of two compounds x and y are −84 kJ and −156 kJ respectively. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
  • x is less stable than y
  • B
    Both x and y are unstable
  • C
    x is more stable than y
  • D
    x and y are endothermic compounds
Answer
Correct option: A.
x is less stable than y
A
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MCQ 831 Mark
An ideal gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 bar from an initial volume of $2.50 dm ^3$ to a final volume of $4.50 dm ^3$. The change in internal energy $(\Delta U)$ of the gas will be______.
  • A
    −1136 J
  • B
    +1136 J
  • −500 J
  • D
    +500 J
Answer
Correct option: C.
−500 J
C
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MCQ 841 Mark
Thermodynamics deals with ______.
  • A
    rates at which physical and chemical processes occur
  • B
    the path between the two states of the system
  • C
    microscopic properties of system
  • macroscopic properties of the system
Answer
Correct option: D.
macroscopic properties of the system
D
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MCQ 851 Mark
At $T ( K )$, the molar ionic conductivities of $NH ^{\text {; }}$; and $OH ^{-}$at infinite dilution are 72 and $198 S cm ^2 mol^{-1}$ respectively. The molar conductivity of $0.01 M NH _4 OH$ solution at the same temperature is found to be $9 S cm ^2 mol^{-1}$. The percentage dissociation of $NH _4 OH$ at this concentration is .........
  • A
    7.14
  • B
    4.54
  • 3.33
  • D
    12.5
Answer
Correct option: C.
3.33
C
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MCQ 861 Mark
Solutions A, B, C and Dare respectively 0.2 M urea, $0.10 M NaCl ^2, 0.05 M BaCl _2$ and $0.05 M AlCl _3$. All solutions are isotonic with each other except ______.
  • A
    D
  • B
    A
  • C
    B
  • C
Answer
Correct option: D.
C
D
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MCQ 871 Mark
When 0.01 mole of sugar is dissolved in 100 g of a solvent, the depression in freezing point is 0.50°C. When 0.02 mole of glucose is dissolved in 50 g of the same solvent, the depression in freezing point will be ____________ °C.
  • 2
  • B
    0.60
  • C
    60
  • D
    0.80
Answer
Correct option: A.
2
A
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MCQ 881 Mark
When a cation or anion from ionic solid leaves its regular lattice site and moves to occupy an interstitial site, it is called as ____________.
  • A
    Impurity defect
  • B
    Line defect
  • C
    Schottky defect
  • Frenkel defect
Answer
Correct option: D.
Frenkel defect
D
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MCQ 891 Mark
Which of the following is INCORRECT?
  • A
    NaCl shows yellow colour due to the formation of f-centre.
  • In substitutional impurity defect, the impurity atoms occupy interstitial spaces of lattice structure.
  • C
    Metal deficiency defect is possible only in compounds of metals that show variable oxidation states.
  • D
    $Zn _{1+x} O _{1.0}$ is an example of metal excess defect.
Answer
Correct option: B.
In substitutional impurity defect, the impurity atoms occupy interstitial spaces of lattice structure.
B
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MCQ 901 Mark
____________ is an example of molecular crystal. 
  • A
    $K _2 SO _{4(s)}$
  • B
    $NaCl _{( s )}$
  • $SO _{2(s)}$
  • D
    $K _{( s )}$
Answer
Correct option: C.
$SO _{2(s)}$
C
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MCQ 911 Mark
Dow's process is used for the synthesis of an aromatic compound (X). Identify X.
  • A
    Benzene
  • Phenol
  • C
    Acetophenone
  • D
    Benzaldehyde
Answer
Correct option: B.
Phenol
B
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MCQ 921 Mark
In oxy-acetylene flame for welding and cutting of metals, a mixture of ____________ is used.
  • A
    oxygen and ethene
  • B
    hydrogen and ethene
  • C
    hydrogen and acetylene
  • oxygen and acetylene
Answer
Correct option: D.
oxygen and acetylene
D
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MCQ 931 Mark
What is a common name of the compound 1-Chloro-2, 2-dimethylpropane?
  • A
    Isopentyl chloride
  • Neopentyl chloride
  • C
    Isobutyl chloride
  • D
    tert-butyl chloride
Answer
Correct option: B.
Neopentyl chloride
B
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MCQ 941 Mark
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
  • The oil in water emulsion can be diluted with water.
  • B
    The oil in water emulsion is miscible with oil.
  • C
    Electrical conductance of water in oil emulsion increases on addition of small amount of electrolyte.
  • D
    The water in oil emulsion is miscible with water.
Answer
Correct option: A.
The oil in water emulsion can be diluted with water.
A
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MCQ 951 Mark
The density of an ideal gas can be expressed as d = ____________.
  • A
    `"RT"/"PM"`
  • B
    `"RM"/"TP"`
  • C
    `"RP"/"TM"`
  • `"PM"/"RT"`
Answer
Correct option: D.
`"PM"/"RT"`
D
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MCQ 961 Mark
When slaked lime is passed through excess $CO _2$, it forms ______.
  • $Ca \left( HCO _3\right)_2$
  • B
    $CaCl _2$
  • C
    $Ca _2 HCO _3$
  • D
    $CaCO _3$
Answer
Correct option: A.
$Ca \left( HCO _3\right)_2$
A
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MCQ 971 Mark
Which of the following is a redox reaction?
  • A
    $\ce{MgCO3 -> MgO + CO2}$
  • $\ce{Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2}$
  • C
    $\ce{NaCl + KNO3 -> NaNO3 + KCl}$
  • D
    $\ce{CaC2O4 + 2HCl -> CaCl2 + H2C2O4}$
Answer
Correct option: B.
$\ce{Zn + 2HCl -> ZnCl2 + H2}$
B
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MCQ 981 Mark
Which of the following is less covalent than NaCl?
  • A
    $MgCl _2$
  • KCl
  • C
    $AlCl _3$
  • D
    LiCl
Answer
Correct option: B.
KCl
B
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MCQ 991 Mark
Which of the following is an isotone of `""_7^14"N"`?
  • A
    `""_7^15"N"`
  • B
    `""_6^12"C"`
  • `""_6^13"C"`
  • D
    `""_6^14"C"`
Answer
Correct option: C.
`""_6^13"C"`
C
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MCQ 1001 Mark
____________ states that equal volumes of all gases under identical conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.
  • A
    Dalton's law
  • Avogadro's law
  • C
    Gay Lussac's law
  • D
    Law of multiple proportions
Answer
Correct option: B.
Avogadro's law
B
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MCQ 1011 Mark
Identify the pioneer organisms that would appear on bare rocks.
  • A
    Mosses
  • B
    Green algae
  • C
    Liverworts
  • Lichens
Answer
Correct option: D.
Lichens
D
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MCQ 1021 Mark
Identify the correct order of primary succession in water bodies.
  • A
    Free-floating hydrophytes, sedges, phytoplankton, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
  • B
    Phytoplankton, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, sedges, grasses, and trees.
  • C
    Phytoplankton, sedges, free-floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes, grasses, and trees.
  • Phytoplankton rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and trees.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Phytoplankton rooted submerged hydrophytes, floating hydrophytes, reed swamp, sedges, meadow, and trees.
D
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MCQ 1031 Mark
Identify the correct sequence of hydroseric succession.
  • Phytoplankton → Rooted submerged → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
  • B
    Rooted submerged → Phytoplankton → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
  • C
    Phytoplankton → Reed swamp → Rooted submerged → Sedge meadow
  • D
    Phytoplankton → Sedge meadow → Reed swamp → Rooted submerged
Answer
Correct option: A.
Phytoplankton → Rooted submerged → Reed swamp → Sedge meadow
A
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MCQ 1041 Mark
Match the Columns.
Column I Column II
i. Hibernation a. Birds in winter
ii. Aestivation b. Polar bear in winter
iii. Migration c. Some snails and fish in summer
  • A
    i. ii. iii.

    (B)

    a c b
  • B
    i. ii. iii.

    (A)

    c b a
  • i. ii. iii.

    (D)

    b c a
  • D
    i. ii. iii.

    (C)

    b a c
Answer
Correct option: C.
i. ii. iii.

(D)

b c a
C
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MCQ 1051 Mark
In the given picture, identify the type of interspecific interaction. 
Image
  • A
    Competition
  • B
    Predation
  • Commensalism
  • D
    Brood parasitism
Answer
Correct option: C.
Commensalism
C
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MCQ 1061 Mark
Mutualism can be represented as the interaction between ____________.
  • algae and fungi in lichen
  • B
    tiger chasing deer
  • C
    Cuscuta plant with host plant
  • D
    sea anemone and clown fish
Answer
Correct option: A.
algae and fungi in lichen
A
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MCQ 1071 Mark
On which of the following factors does the population growth of a country depends upon?
  • A
    Birth and death rates
  • All of the above
  • C
    Birth rate and immigration
  • D
    Death rate and emigration
Answer
Correct option: B.
All of the above
B
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MCQ 1081 Mark
____________ organisms are tolerant for a wide range of salinities.
  • A
    Stenohaline
  • B
    Stenothermal
  • Eurybaline
  • D
    Eurythermal
Answer
Correct option: C.
Eurybaline
C
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MCQ 1091 Mark
Which of the following is the correct explanation of why a species creates its own unique niche in an ecosystem?
  • A
    It helps to increase competition among species living in same habitat
  • B
    None of these
  • It helps to reduce competition for resources among species
  • D
    Many species share the same niche
Answer
Correct option: C.
It helps to reduce competition for resources among species
C
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MCQ 1101 Mark
Which of the following components are used for improving fish quality?
  • All of the above
  • B
    Growth hormone
  • C
    Chicken crystalline protein
  • D
    E. coli hygromycin resistance gene
Answer
Correct option: A.
All of the above
A
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MCQ 1111 Mark
For which of the following purpose Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA) is used?
  • To reverse blood clot
  • B
    To treat pituitary dwarfism
  • C
    To promote formation of new blood vessels
  • D
    To treat haemophiliacs
Answer
Correct option: A.
To reverse blood clot
A
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MCQ 1121 Mark
Identify the correct term used to represent the DNA molecule formed by joining a gene coding for insulin to a plasmid pBR322 by using DNA ligase.
  • A
    Recombinant DNA
  • Both Recombinant DNA and Chimeric DNA
  • C
    Chimeric DNA
  • D
    Complementary DNA
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both Recombinant DNA and Chimeric DNA
B
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MCQ 1131 Mark
Study the following statements regarding $\text{cDNA}$ library and select the correct option.
$\text{(i)}$ Study the following statements regarding $\text{cDNA}$ library and select the correct option.
$ \text{(ii) DNA}$ is produced from isolated $\text{rRNA}$ by reverse transcription. The $\text{DNA}$ so made is called complementary $\text{DNA (cDNA)}$.
  • A
    Both statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are incorrect.
  • Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
  • C
    Statement $\text{ii}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{i}$ is incorrect.
  • D
    Both statements $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
Statement $\text{i}$ is correct whereas statement $\text{ii}$ is incorrect.
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MCQ 1141 Mark
The following identifies the major features of technology that differentiate modem biotechnology from classical biotechnology.

i. Capability of science to change the genetic material for getting new specific products through rDNA technology, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), microarrays, cell culture and fusion, and bioprocessing.

ii. Ownership of technology and its sociopolitical impact.

iii. Modem biotechnology makes use of only fermentation technology.

iv. Classical biotechnology relies only on principles of plant and animal tissue culture.

  • A
    i and iii
  • i and ii
  • C
    iii and iv
  • D
    ii and iii
Answer
Correct option: B.
i and ii
B
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MCQ 1151 Mark
Which of the following DNA sequence is recognised and cut by EcoR I?
  • A
    5'TACTTAAGCA3'

    3'ATGAATTCGT5 '

  • B
    3'ACGAATTCAT5'

    5'TGCITAAGTA3 '

  • C
    5'TGCTTAAGTA3 '

    3 'ACGAA TTCAT5'

  • 5'ACGAAITCAT3 '

    3 'TGCTT AAGT A5'

Answer
Correct option: D.
5'ACGAAITCAT3 '

3 'TGCTT AAGT A5'

D
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MCQ 1161 Mark
Which of the following device is required for PCR?
  • A
    Spectroscopy
  • B
    Tubular Tower Fermenter
  • Thermal cycler
  • D
    Mass spectrometry
Answer
Correct option: C.
Thermal cycler
C
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MCQ 1171 Mark
Match the List I with List II and List ill. Select the correct option.
List I List II List ill
i. Hind III a. Agarose ge 1. Six base pairs
ii. pBR322 b. Agrobacterium 2. Selectable marke
iii. T-DNA c. Ampicillin 3. Elution
iv. DNA d. Recognition sequenc 4. Transgenic plant
  • A
    d, 1 a, 3 c, 2 b, 4
  • d,1 c, 2 b, 4 a, 3
  • C
    a, 3 b, 4 c, 2 d, 1
  • D
    d, 1 c, 2 a, 3 b, 4
Answer
Correct option: B.
d,1 c, 2 b, 4 a, 3
B
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MCQ 1181 Mark
______ refers to the process by which deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate is formed from deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate.
  • A
    Decarboxylation
  • B
    Amination
  • Phosphorylation
  • D
    Dephosphorylation
Answer
Correct option: C.
Phosphorylation
C
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MCQ 1191 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement regarding Mycorrhiza.
  • It forms symbiotic association with rhizomes and roots of higher plants.
  • B
    It is a phosphate solubilizing bacteria.
  • C
    It is a cyanobacterium.
  • D
    It is an aquatic fem.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It forms symbiotic association with rhizomes and roots of higher plants.
A
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MCQ 1201 Mark
Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement?
  • A
    Tyria moth controls the weed Senecio jacobaea c.
  • B
    Phytophthora palmivora controls milkweeds in orchards.
  • C
    Alternaria crassa controls water hyacinth.
  • Fusarium spp. is an insecticidal herbicide.
Answer
Correct option: D.
Fusarium spp. is an insecticidal herbicide.
D
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MCQ 1211 Mark
______ stage is the last step of biogas production.
  • A
    Solubilisation
  • B
    Acetogenesis
  • Methanogenesis
  • D
    Hydrolysis
Answer
Correct option: C.
Methanogenesis
C
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MCQ 1221 Mark
Which of the following occurs during tertiary treatment?
  • Anaerobic bacteria grow and digest the bacteria and fungi in sludge.
  • B
    All physical processes take place.
  • C
    Large pieces of floating debris are removed.
  • D
    The vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes takes place.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Anaerobic bacteria grow and digest the bacteria and fungi in sludge.
A
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MCQ 1231 Mark
Identify the organism used in the production of erythromycin.
  • A
    Streptomyces aureofaciens
  • B
    Streptomyces venezuelae
  • C
    Streptomyces griseus
  • Streptomyces erythreus
Answer
Correct option: D.
Streptomyces erythreus
D
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MCQ 1241 Mark
In plant tissue culture auxin is used for ____________.
  • root initiation
  • B
    leaf senescence
  • C
    delayed senescence
  • D
    ripening of fruits
Answer
Correct option: A.
root initiation
A
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MCQ 1251 Mark
Smack is obtained from the ____________ of poppy plant.
  • A
    flowers
  • latex
  • C
    roots
  • D
    leaves
Answer
Correct option: B.
latex
B
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MCQ 1261 Mark
The levels of which neurotransmitter are increased by using Cocaine?
  • A
    Gamma amino butyric acid
  • B
    Acetylcholine
  • Dopamine
  • D
    Nor-adrenaline
Answer
Correct option: C.
Dopamine
C
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MCQ 1271 Mark
AIDS is ______.
  • A
    Anti immune deficiency syndrome
  • B
    Auto immune deficiency syndrome
  • Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  • D
    Acquired immune disease system
Answer
Correct option: C.
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C
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MCQ 1281 Mark
Dengue is transmitted by ____________.
  • Aedes mosquito
  • B
    Culex mosquito
  • C
    Anopheles mosquito
  • D
    all of these
Answer
Correct option: A.
Aedes mosquito
A
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MCQ 1291 Mark
Identify the CORRECT match.
  • A
    Disease Pathogen
    Ringworm S. pneumoniae
  • Disease Pathogen
    Pneumonia H. influenzae
  • C
    Disease Pathogen
    Typhoid Streptococcus typhi
  • D
    Disease Pathogen
    Ascariasis Ascaris
Answer
Correct option: B.
Disease Pathogen
Pneumonia H. influenzae
B
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MCQ 1301 Mark
Which of the following is NOT an example of ectoparasitism?
  • Plasmodium vivax - Human
  • B
    Copepods - Marine fishes
  • C
    Ticks - Dog
  • D
    Cuscuta - Hedge plant
Answer
Correct option: A.
Plasmodium vivax - Human
A
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MCQ 1311 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for the temporal lobe?
  • A
    Possesses visual area for the sense of vision
  • B
    Contains centres for smell and bearing
  • C
    Translates thought into speech
  • Contains centres for speech and emotions
Answer
Correct option: D.
Contains centres for speech and emotions
D
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MCQ 1341 Mark
Which of the following statements is TRUE for medullated nerve fibre?
  • A
    Impulse conduction occurs at the rate of 120 m/br
  • B
    Impulse conduction is slower
  • C
    Continuous conduction takes place.
  • Myelin sheath prevents flow of ions between axoplasm and ECF
Answer
Correct option: D.
Myelin sheath prevents flow of ions between axoplasm and ECF
D
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MCQ 1351 Mark
Identify the CORRECT statement.
  • Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse is faster as compared to chemical synapse.
  • B
    Transmission of impulse across chemical synapse is faster in comparison to electrical synapse.
  • C
    At chemical synapses, the membranes of pre-and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity
  • D
    Chemical synapses are rare in humans in comparison to electrical synapses.
Answer
Correct option: A.
Transmission of impulse across electrical synapse is faster as compared to chemical synapse.
A
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MCQ 1361 Mark
The structural and functional units of the nervous system is ______.
  • A
    Schwann cells
  • Neurons
  • C
    Oligodendrocytes
  • D
    Neuroglia
Answer
Correct option: B.
Neurons
B
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MCQ 1371 Mark
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding thrombocytes?
  • A
    They possess a bilobed nucleus.
  • Both they are essential in blood clotting and are also known as platelets.
  • C
    They are also known as platelets.
  • D
    They are essential in blood clotting.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both they are essential in blood clotting and are also known as platelets.
B
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MCQ 1381 Mark
Identify the normal haemoglobin count in human females.
  • A
    12-16 mg/l00ml of blood
  • 13-15 gm/l00ml of blood
  • C
    10-16 gm/l000ml of blood
  • D
    11.5-16.5 gm/l0ml of blood
Answer
Correct option: B.
13-15 gm/l00ml of blood
B
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MCQ 1391 Mark
Reduction in number of ______ can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
  • thrombocytes
  • B
    leucocytes
  • C
    neutrophils
  • D
    erythrocytes
Answer
Correct option: A.
thrombocytes
A
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MCQ 1401 Mark
When you hold your breath, identify the gas changes that occur in blood and would first lead to the urge to breathe.
  • A
    Falling $O _2$ concentration
  • B
    Rising $CO _2$ concentration
  • Rising $CO _2$ and falling $O _2$ concentration
  • D
    Falling $CO _2$ concentration
Answer
Correct option: C.
Rising $CO _2$ and falling $O _2$ concentration
C
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MCQ 1411 Mark
______ of nasal chamber warms the air and makes it moist.
  • A
    External nares
  • Respiratory part
  • C
    Sensory part
  • D
    Vestibule
Answer
Correct option: B.
Respiratory part
B
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MCQ 1421 Mark
______ refers to the physical process by which gaseous exchange takes place between the atmosphere and the lungs.
  • A
    Cellular respiration
  • Breathing
  • C
    Extracellular respiration
  • D
    Internal respiration
Answer
Correct option: B.
Breathing
B
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MCQ 1431 Mark
____________ refers to a biochemical process of oxidation of organic compounds in an orderly manner for the liberation of chemical energy in the form of ATP.
  • Respiration
  • B
    Transcription
  • C
    Transpiration
  • D
    Reduction
Answer
Correct option: A.
Respiration
A
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MCQ 1441 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a physiological role of Gibberellin?
  • A
    Flowering in long day plants
  • B
    Bolting in cabbage
  • C
    Synthesis of hydrolysing enzyme amylase in wheat and barley
  • Senescence and abscission
Answer
Correct option: D.
Senescence and abscission
D
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MCQ 1451 Mark
Suppression of the growth of ______ takes place due to auxin.
  • lateral buds
  • B
    lateral and adventitious roots
  • C
    roots on stem cuttings
  • D
    apical buds
Answer
Correct option: A.
lateral buds
A
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MCQ 1461 Mark
Match the following lists and select the correct option.
List I List II
i. 2,4-D a. Promotes senescence and ripening of fruits
ii. ABA b. DelaysJeaf senescence
iii. Gibberellins c. Increases the length of the sugarcane stem
iv. Ethylene d. Kills dicotyledonous weeds without affecting mature monocotyledonous plants
e. Stimulates the closure of stomata
  • A
    i - e, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
  • B
    i - d, ii - c, iii - e, iv - b
  • C
    i - c, ii - e, iii - b, iv - a
  • i - d, ii - e, iii - c, iv - a
Answer
Correct option: D.
i - d, ii - e, iii - c, iv - a
D
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MCQ 1471 Mark
What is the proportion of hydrogen and oxygen in carbohydrates formed by plants during photosynthesis?
  • A
    1 : 1
  • 2 : 1
  • C
    3 : 1
  • D
    1 : 2
Answer
Correct option: B.
2 : 1
B
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MCQ 1481 Mark
Identify labels $\text{I, II, III}$ in the given figure of root showing different regions. 
Image
  • A
    zone of elongation
    Root hair zone
    Root cap
  • B
    Root hair zone
    Meristematic zone
    Root cap
  • C
    Maturation zone
    Meristematic zone
    Root hair zone
  • Maturation zone
    zone of elongation
    Root cap
Answer
Correct option: D.
Maturation zone
zone of elongation
Root cap
Maturation zone
zone of elongation
Root cap
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MCQ 1491 Mark
In which of the following zones root hair occurs?
  • A
    Zone of cell maturation
  • B
    Zone of cell elongation
  • C
    Zone of cell division
  • Zone of absorption
Answer
Correct option: D.
Zone of absorption
D
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MCQ 1501 Mark
Identify the type of water that is available to the plants.
  • A
    Combined water
  • B
    Gravitational water
  • C
    Hygroscopic water
  • Capillary water
Answer
Correct option: D.
Capillary water
D
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MCQ 1511 Mark
Root hair occurs in the zone of ____________.
  • A
    cell maturation
  • B
    cell division
  • C
    cell elongation
  • absorption
Answer
Correct option: D.
absorption
D
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MCQ 1531 Mark
______ had cranial capacity almost equal to modern man.
  • A
    Homo erectus
  • Neanderthal man
  • C
    Homo habilis
  • D
    Australopithecus
Answer
Correct option: B.
Neanderthal man
B
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MCQ 1541 Mark
All are major changes that took place in evolution of man, EXCEPT
  • A
    Opposable thumb
  • B
    Developed brain
  • Narrowing of pelvic girdle
  • D
    Bipedal locomotion
Answer
Correct option: C.
Narrowing of pelvic girdle
C
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MCQ 1551 Mark
The modem synthetic theory of evolution does NOT include ____________.
  • A
    Mutations and genetic recombination
  • B
    Reproductive isolation
  • C
    Natural selection
  • Inheritance of acquired characters
Answer
Correct option: D.
Inheritance of acquired characters
D
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MCQ 1561 Mark
Which of the following phenomena results in genetic recombination?
  • Crossing over of genes to produce new genotypes
  • B
    Random fluctuations in allele frequency
  • C
    Loss of genes from the chromosome
  • D
    Change in gene and gene frequencies
Answer
Correct option: A.
Crossing over of genes to produce new genotypes
A
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MCQ 1571 Mark
Which of the following is TRUE for zygote mortality?
  • A
    Sperm transfer takes place but egg is not fertilized.
  • Egg is fertilized but zygote dies.
  • C
    Egg is fertilized and zygote is formed.
  • D
    Hybrids are sterile.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Egg is fertilized but zygote dies.
B
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MCQ 1581 Mark
From the following identify the INCORRECT match.
  • A
    Phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar - Ester bond
  • B
    Amino acids - Peptide bond
  • Adenine and Thymine - Phosphodiester bond
  • D
    Monosaccharides - Glycosidic bond
Answer
Correct option: C.
Adenine and Thymine - Phosphodiester bond
C
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MCQ 1591 Mark
In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as ______
  • A
    there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense codons.
  • B
    64 amino acids are to be coded.
  • The genetic code is a triplet.
  • D
    64 types of t-RNAs are present.
Answer
Correct option: C.
The genetic code is a triplet.
C
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MCQ 1601 Mark
The addition of nucleotides on the lagging strand occurs ____________ during DNA replication.
  • A
    towards the replicating fork
  • B
    at a faster rate than leading strand
  • C
    continuously
  • discontinuously
Answer
Correct option: D.
discontinuously
D
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MCQ 1611 Mark
In which direction polymerization of DNA nucleotides occurs during the synthesis of lagging strand?
  • A
    Any direction
  • 5' → 3' direction
  • C
    3' → 5' direction
  • D
    Towards the replication fork
Answer
Correct option: B.
5' → 3' direction
B
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MCQ 1621 Mark
The chromatin is packed to form a solenoid structure of ______ diameter.
  • A
    $10^{-4}$ meter
  • B
    2.2 nm
  • C
    1.2 nm
  • 30 nm
Answer
Correct option: D.
30 nm
D
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MCQ 1631 Mark
Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the CORRECT answer
Column-I Column-II
P. Klinefelter syndrome i. Mutation in autosomal gene
Q. Thalassaemia ii. Mutation sex chromosome linked gene
R. Down syndrome iii. Trisomy of autosome
S. Colour blindness iv. Trisomy of sex chromosome
  • P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii
  • B
    P - iv, Q - ii, R - iii, S - i
  • C
    P - ii, Q - iii, R- iv, S - i
  • D
    P - iii, Q - iv, R - i, S - ii
Answer
Correct option: A.
P - iv, Q - i, R - iii, S - ii
A
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MCQ 1641 Mark
Which type of sex determination is observed in honey bee?
  • A
    Haploidy
  • B
    Diploidy
  • C
    ZZ-ZW
  • Haplo-diploidy
Answer
Correct option: D.
Haplo-diploidy
D
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MCQ 1651 Mark
Holandric genes are found only in ____________.
  • A
    females
  • males
  • C
    both females and males
  • D
    such genes do not exist
Answer
Correct option: B.
males
B
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MCQ 1661 Mark
Which type of progeny would be produced if a normal visioned man marries a colour-blind woman?
  • A
    Colour blind sons and 50% earner daughters
  • B
    Normal sons and carrier daughters.
  • Colour blind sons and carrier daughters.
  • D
    50% colour blind sons and 50% colour blind daughters.
Answer
Correct option: C.
Colour blind sons and carrier daughters.
C
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MCQ 1671 Mark
The phenomenon of ____________ is universal and it is necessary for the natural selection, because it increases the chances of variation.
  • A
    co-dominance
  • B
    incomplete linkage
  • crossing over
  • D
    complete linkage
Answer
Correct option: C.
crossing over
C
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MCQ 1681 Mark
Identify the statementls that is/are NOT the correct reason/s for Mendel's success in his hybridization experiments.

i. Each factor controlled the single trait and is located on separate chromosomes.

ii. In the pea plant, contrasting characters can be easily recognized.

iii. Mendel carefully recorded the number of plants of each type and expressed his results as ratios.

iv. Mendel performed biochemical assays for identifying the position of 'factors' on chromosome.

  • A
    i, ii, iv
  • Only iv
  • C
    ii, iii, iv
  • D
    i and iv
Answer
Correct option: B.
Only iv
B
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MCQ 1691 Mark
Which of the following hormones is produced by ovary?
  • A
    Oestrogen
  • B
    hCG
  • C
    Progesterone
  • Relax.in
Answer
Correct option: D.
Relax.in
D
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MCQ 1701 Mark
Identify the correct order of human embryo development.
  • A
    Cleavage, gastrulation, blastulation
  • B
    Blastulation, cleavage, gastrulation
  • Cleavage, blastulation, gastrulation
  • D
    Gastrulation, blastulation, cleavage
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cleavage, blastulation, gastrulation
C
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MCQ 1711 Mark
Which is the correct order of steps occurring during spermatogenesis?
  • A
    Spermatid → spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatogonia
  • B
    Spermatocyte → spermatozoa → spermatid → spennatogonia
  • Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → spermatozoa
  • D
    Spermatozoa → spermatogonia → spermatid → spermatocyte
Answer
Correct option: C.
Spermatogonia → spermatocyte → spermatid → spermatozoa
C
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MCQ 1721 Mark
Which of the following occurs during maturation phase of spermatogenesis?
  • The spermatocyte undergoes the first phase of meiotic division
  • B
    The primordial germ cells undergo mitotic division
  • C
    The spermatogonia undergoes meiotic division to form spermatozoa
  • D
    The spermatogonia develop into primary spermatocyte
Answer
Correct option: A.
The spermatocyte undergoes the first phase of meiotic division
A
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MCQ 1731 Mark
Complete the analogy.

1 primary spermatocyte : 4 spermatozoa :: 1 primary oocyte : ____________.

  • A
    16 ova
  • B
    2 ova
  • C
    4 ova
  • 1 ovum
Answer
Correct option: D.
1 ovum
D
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MCQ 1741 Mark
Identify the INCORRECTLY labelled structure in the given diagram of the male reproductive system. 
Image
  • A
    Prostate
  • Vasa efferentia
  • C
    Urinary bladder
  • D
    Seminal vesicle
Answer
Correct option: B.
Vasa efferentia
B
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MCQ 1751 Mark
______ refers to the formation of seeds without fertilization.
  • A
    Parthenocarpy
  • B
    Polyembryony
  • Apomixis
  • D
    Amphimixis
Answer
Correct option: C.
Apomixis
C
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MCQ 1761 Mark
In which of the following pollination occurs?
  • A
    Bryophytes and angiosperms
  • B
    Pteridophytes and angiosperms
  • C
    Angiosperms and fungi
  • Angiosperms and gymnosperms
Answer
Correct option: D.
Angiosperms and gymnosperms
D
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MCQ 1771 Mark
Following figure represents monocot embryo Identify labels P, Q, Rand S.
  • A
    P Q R S
    Epiblast Coleoptile Shoot apex Coleorhiza
  • B
    P Q R S
    Shoot apex Coleorhiza Radicle Coleoptile
  • C
    P Q R S
    Epiblast Coleorhiza Radicle Coleoptile
  • P Q R S
    Scutellum Coleoptile Root Cap Coleorhiza
Answer
Correct option: D.
P Q R S
Scutellum Coleoptile Root Cap Coleorhiza
D
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MCQ 1781 Mark
Which of the following induces pollen germination and tube growth in vitro?
  • A
    Dilute HCl
  • Sucrose
  • C
    Cone. $H _2 SO _4$
  • D
    Abscisic acid
Answer
Correct option: B.
Sucrose
B
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MCQ 1791 Mark
ln which of the following cross-pollination does not occur?
  • A
    Chasmogamous flowers
  • B
    Geitonogamous flowers
  • C
    Allogarnous flowers
  • Cleistogamous flowers
Answer
Correct option: D.
Cleistogamous flowers
D
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MCQ 1801 Mark
Into which of the following the functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops?
  • Embryo sac
  • B
    Endosperm
  • C
    Ovule
  • D
    Embryo
Answer
Correct option: A.
Embryo sac
A
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MCQ 1811 Mark
The glomerulus filters most of its contents due to hydrostatic pressure created. This pressure is about ____________.
  • 55 mm Hg
  • B
    15 mm Hg
  • C
    30 mm Hg
  • D
    10 mm Hg
Answer
Correct option: A.
55 mm Hg
A
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MCQ 1821 Mark
Which statement is INCORRECT regarding mechanism of urine formation in man?
  • The counter-current systems contribute in diluting urine.
  • B
    Tubular secretion is the movement of substances from the blood into the tubular fluid.
  • C
    The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml per minute.
  • D
    Aldosterone is an important hormone in the RAAS mechanism.
Answer
Correct option: A.
The counter-current systems contribute in diluting urine.
A
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MCQ 1831 Mark
The DCT of the nephron is important as it will ______
  • A
    Maintain Na-K balance in the blood
  • Both Maintain Na-K balance in the blood and Maintain the pH of the blood
  • C
    Regulate ultrafiltration
  • D
    Maintain pH of the blood
Answer
Correct option: B.
Both Maintain Na-K balance in the blood and Maintain the pH of the blood
B
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MCQ 1841 Mark
In cases of dehydration, the JG cells will release ______.
  • A
    ADH
  • renin
  • C
    vasopressin
  • D
    aldosterone
Answer
Correct option: B.
renin
B
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MCQ 1851 Mark
Organisms which require about 300 - 500 ml of water per gm of ammonia for their excretion are ______.
  • ammonotelic
  • B
    uricotelic
  • C
    ureotelic
  • D
    guanotelic
Answer
Correct option: A.
ammonotelic
A
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MCQ 1861 Mark
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Marasmus?
  • A
    Loss of weight
  • Oedema
  • C
    Atrophy of digestive glands
  • D
    Retardation of mental development
Answer
Correct option: B.
Oedema
B
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MCQ 1871 Mark
Which of the following digestive juices contains the enzyme maltase?
  • A
    Bile
  • B
    Saliva
  • Intestinal juice
  • D
    Pancreatic juice
Answer
Correct option: C.
Intestinal juice
C
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MCQ 1881 Mark
Which is true for actvity of enzyme pepsin?
  • It requires an acidic medium in the stomach.
  • B
    It requires an alkaline medium in the intestine.
  • C
    It requires an acidic medium in the pancreas.
  • D
    It requires an alkaline medium in the mouth.
Answer
Correct option: A.
It requires an acidic medium in the stomach.
A
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MCQ 1891 Mark
____________ secrete intrinsic factor.
  • A
    Goblet cells
  • B
    Hepatic Cells
  • Oxyntic cells
  • D
    Chief cells
Answer
Correct option: C.
Oxyntic cells
C
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MCQ 1901 Mark
The crown of the tooth is covered by the hardest substance of the body called the ____________.
  • A
    pulp
  • enamel
  • C
    dental tubules
  • D
    dentine
Answer
Correct option: B.
enamel
B
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MCQ 1911 Mark
Which of the following enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
  • Hexokinase
  • B
    Phosphohexose isomerase
  • C
    Phospboglyeromutase
  • D
    Phsphofructokinase
Answer
Correct option: A.
Hexokinase
A
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MCQ 1921 Mark
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is ____________.
  • decarboxylated to acetaldehyde
  • B
    phospborylated to acetaldehyde
  • C
    decarboxylated to lactic acid
  • D
    deoxygenated to acetaldehyde
Answer
Correct option: A.
decarboxylated to acetaldehyde
A
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MCQ 1931 Mark
Which type of reaction is TCA cycle?
  • A
    Catabolic
  • B
    None of these
  • C
    Anabolic
  • Amphibolic
Answer
Correct option: D.
Amphibolic
D
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MCQ 1941 Mark
____________ ATPs will be effectively produced during the production of 1 molecule of acetyl-CoA from 1 molecule of pyruvic acid.
  • 3
  • B
    12
  • C
    10
  • D
    6
Answer
Correct option: A.
3
A
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MCQ 1951 Mark
____________ is necessary for the respiration in plant.
  • Oxygen
  • B
    Chlorophyll
  • C
    Carbon dioxide
  • D
    Light
Answer
Correct option: A.
Oxygen
A
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MCQ 1961 Mark
Study the following statements with respect to enzymes and select the correct option.
$\text{(i)}$ Most of the enzymes work at an optimum temperature between $20^\circ C$ and $35^\circ C$.
$\text{(ii)}$ Enzymes are destroyed at lower temperature of $10-20^\circ C$.
$\text{(iii)}$ Each enzyme exhibits its highest activity at a specific $pH$ i.e. optimum $pH$.
  • A
    Statement $\text{i, ii }$ and $\text{iii}$ are incorrect.
  • Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
  • C
    Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{ii}$ are correct.
  • D
    Statement $\text{ii}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
Answer
Correct option: B.
Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
Statement $\text{i}$ and $\text{iii}$ are correct.
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MCQ 1971 Mark
Nucleotides = ____________.
  • A
    Purine + Pyrimidine + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
  • B
    Pyrimidine + Monosaccharide + ATP
  • Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
  • D
    Purine + Pyrimidine + Phosphate
Answer
Correct option: C.
Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
C
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MCQ 1981 Mark
Identify (i) and (ii) and select the correct option.

i. Protein portion of the enzyme is called the ____________.

ii. Non-protein constituent binding to the enzyme is called as the ____________.

  • A
    i - factor; ii - proenzyme
  • B
    i - co-factor; ii - apoenzyme
  • i - apoenzyme; ii - co-factor
  • D
    i - proenzyme; ii - factor
Answer
Correct option: C.
i - apoenzyme; ii - co-factor
C
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MCQ 1991 Mark
____________ is a structural component of the cell.
  • Lipoprotein
  • B
    Chromoprotein
  • C
    Both Chromoprotein and Lipoprotein
  • D
    Haemoglobin
Answer
Correct option: A.
Lipoprotein
A
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MCQ 2001 Mark
From the following identify the group that is exclusively consists of polysaccharides.
  • A
    Maltose, galactose, cellulose
  • B
    Erythrose, starch, cellulose
  • Cellulose, starch, chitin
  • D
    Glycogen, lactose, starch
Answer
Correct option: C.
Cellulose, starch, chitin
C
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