Question
Describe pregnancy and embryonic development.

Answer

→ Immediately after implantation, the inner cell mass (embryo) differentiates into an outer layer called ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
→ A mesoderm soon appears between the ectoderm and the endoderm.
→ These three layers give rise to all tissues (organs) in adults.
→ The inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs.
→ The human pregnancy lasts 9 months.
→ In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo's heart is formed. The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully through the stethoscope.
→ By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
→ By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the major organ systems are formed, for example, the limbs and external genital organs are well-developed.
→ The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the fifth month.
→ By the end of about 24 weeks (end of second trimester), the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed.
→ By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.
Image
→ The zygote is formed at the ampulla-isthmus junction of the fallopian tube when the union of secondary oocyte and spermatozoa occurs. The zygote undergoes various divisions and changes before it reaches the uterus for implantation.
→ The figure shows the various stages of development of a zygote as it passes through the oviduct and uterus:
(a) The zygote divides into a two-celled stage wide via division or 1st cleavage while the ozygote is still in the isthmus of the oviduct.
(b) Several more mitotic divisions or cleavages occur in the 2 celled stage to form a 2, 4, 8 and finally a 16-celled stage of the zygote.The 16 celled stage is called the morula and various cells formed after cleavage are called blastomeres.
(c) Morula then changes into a blastocyst after a few more divisions and this stage contains a fluid filled cavity in the embryo. The blastomeres become arranged and line up into an outer layer of cells called the trophoblast and an inner mass of cells. The fluid filled cavity is called blastocoel.
(d) Implantation of the embryo occurs at this blastocyst stage by the help of trophoblast layer which embeds itself into the uterine endometrium.

Need a full question paper?

Generate a complete, print-ready paper with questions like this in minutes — across 16+ boards, with answer keys.

Start Generating Free

Similar questions

Describe tissue culture.
Explain 'rivet popper hypothesis with example.
Write a short note on transcription unit.### Explain : Transcription unit
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Mutation explains the relationship between gene and DNA. The effects of large deletions and rearrangement in a segment of DNA results in loss or gain of gene and its function. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or deletion. A classical example of point mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for beta globin chain that results in change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine and results into a diseased condition called sickle cell anaemia.

  1. A mutation is a change produced by an alteration in the genetic mechanism and.
  1. May arise spontaneously.
  2. Is always induced by the environment.
  3. Is never advantageous.
  4. Is not inherited.
  1. The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT. The code for valine is CAA or CAT. In sickle cell haemoglobin, valine is present instead of glutamic acid.

Assuming a single base pair substitution has occurred, what is the mRNA code in the affected mutant?

  1. CUU
  2. GAA
  3. GAG
  4. GUA
  1. A mutation involving the substitution of one nitrogenous base for another has altered the base sequence of a DNA molecule, coding for four amino acids, as shown below.

Normal A-G-C-A-T-G-G-A-T-C-C-T

Mutant A-G-C-A-T-G-C-A-T-C-C-T

The table shows six codons and the corresponding amino acids into which each is translated.

mRNA codon
Amino acid
AAG
Lysine
CUA
Leucine
GGA
Glycine
GUA
Valine
UAC
Tyrosine
UCG
Serine
The mutation has changed the amino acid.

  1. Leucine to valine.
  2. Lysine to glycine.
  3. Serine to leucine.
  4. Tyrosine to lysine.
  1. Assertion : Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases, insert or delete one or multiple codons and so one or multiple amino acids.

Reason: Reading frame remains unaltered with insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
  1. Part of the amino acid sequences in normal and sickle cell haemoglobin are shown.
Normal haemoglobin Sickle cell haemoglobin
Thr-Pro-Glu-Glu Thr-Pro-Val-Glu
mRNA codons for these amino acids are

Glutamine (Glu) GAA GAG

Praline (Pro) CCU CCC

Threonine (Thr) ACU ACC

Valine (Val) GUA GUG

Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell haemoglobin?

Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Explain Competition as a population Interaction with suitable examples.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
The DNA, which is transferred from one organism into another by joining it with the vehicle DNA is called passenger or foreign DNA. Generally three types of passenger DNAs are used. These are complementary DNA (cDNA), synthetic DNA (sDNA) and random DNA. Complementary DNA (cDNA) is synthesized on RNA template (usually mRNA) with the help of reverse transcriptase. Synthetic DNA (sDNA) is synthesized on DNA template or without a template. Random DNA are small fragments fanned by breaking a chromosome of an organism in the presence of restriction endonucleases.

  1. Reverse transcriptase enzyme was discovered by:
  1. Temin and Baltimore.
  2. Cohen and Boyer.
  3. Arber and Nathan.
  4. Paul Berg.
  1. During cDNA formation, what would happen if DNA formed by reverse transcriptase is not treated with the alkali?
  1. cDNA will not be digested.
  2. mRNA will not be digested.
  3. Hydrogen bonds will not form between base pairs.
  4. rnRNA will not be formed.
  1. Enzyme that helps in the formation of double stranded cDNA is:
  1. DNA synthetase
  2. Ligase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. Helicase.
  1. DNA polymerase can be obtained form:
  1. Retrovirus.
  2. Agrobacteriurn.
  3. Tobacco mosaic virus.
  4. Thermus aquaticus.
  1. DNA synthesised without a template is referred to as:
  1. Complementary DNA.
  2. Random DNA.
  3. Synthetic DNA.
  4. Z-DNA..
Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished.###How biofertilizers increase fertility of soil?
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Oogenesis is the process of formation of ovum in ovaries. It consists of three phases : multiplication, growth and maturation. Oogenesis is controlled by hormones GnRH, LH, FSH. GnRH secreted by the hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH.

  1. What is the function of hormone FSH?
  1. It inhibits the formation of estrogen.
  2. It induces the release of secondary oocyte.
  3. It stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles.
  4. It causes ovulation.
  1. Which hormone induces the rupture of the mature Graafian follicle?
  1. Follicle stimulating hormone.
  2. Gonadotropin releasing hormone.
  3. Progesterone.
  4. Luteinising hormone.
  1. Which cell division is involved in the formation of secondary oocyte?
  1. Mitosis.
  2. Meiosis I.
  3. Amitosis.
  4. Meiosis II.
  1. Identify the function(s) of LH.
  1. Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle.
  2. Stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
  3. Stimulates estrogen formation.
  4. Promotes development of egg to form secondary oocyte.
  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only.
  4. (B) only.
  1. Assertion: The increase in progesterone level exerts positive feedback on GnRH.

Reason: The rising level of progesterone stimulate production of FSH and LH.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Ecosystem diversity is the variety of forms in the ecosystem due to diversity of niches, trophic levels and ecological processes like nutrient recycling, food webs, energy flow, etc. Study the given figure.

  1. Identify different types of diversity denoted by 1, 2 and 3 in the given figure.
 
1
2
3
(a)
Alpha diversity
Beta diversity
Gamma diversity
(b)
Gamma diversity
Alpha diversity
Beta diversity
(c)
Gamma diversity
Beta diversity
Alpha diversity
(d)
Beta diversity
Alpha diversity
Gamma diversity
  1. Alpha diversity is biodiversity present.
  1. Within conununity.
  2. Between conununities.
  3. In ranges of communities.
  4. None of these.
  1. Diversity represented by diversity of habitats over a total landscape area is:
  1. $\alpha-\text{diversity}$

  2. $\gamma-\text{diversity}$

  3. $\beta-\text{diversity}$

  4. $\delta-\text{diversity}$

  1. Concept of three types of ecological diversity was given by:
  1. Elton
  2. Odum
  3. Edward Wilson
  4. Whittaker
  1. The diversity of organisms sharing the same habitat or conununity is termed as:
  1. Alpha diversity.
  2. beta diversity.
  3. gamma diversity.
  4. delta diversity.