Let $\mathrm{X}$ be no of bad apples
Then $P(X=0)=\frac{{ }^{15} C_2}{{ }^{18} C_2}=\frac{105}{153}$
${P}(\mathrm{X}=1)=\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_1 \times{ }^{15} \mathrm{C}_1}{{ }^{18} \mathrm{C}_2}=\frac{45}{153}$
${P}(\mathrm{X}=2)=\frac{{ }^3 \mathrm{C}_2}{{ }^{18} \mathrm{C}_2}=\frac{3}{153}$
$E(X)=0 \times \frac{105}{153}+1 \times \frac{45}{153}+2 \times \frac{3}{153}=\frac{51}{153}$
$=\frac{1}{3}$
$ \operatorname{Var}(X)=E\left(X^2\right)-(E(X))^2 $
$ =0 \times \frac{105}{153}+1 \times \frac{45}{153}+4 \times \frac{3}{153}-\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^2$
$ =\frac{57}{153}-\frac{1}{9}=\frac{40}{153}$
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વિધાન $1:$ $f(x)\, \le \,g\,(x)$ દરેક $x \in (0,\infty )$
વિધાન $2:$ $f(x)\, \le \,1$ દરેક $(x)\in (0,\infty )$ પરંતુ $g(x)\,\to \infty$ જો $x\,\to \infty$ હોય તો .