Question 11 Mark
Let $\text{f(x)}=\frac{\alpha\text{x}}{\text{x}+1},\text{x}\neq-1.$ Then write the value of $\alpha$ satisfying $\text{f}(\text{f(x)})=\text{x}$ for all $\text{x}\neq-1$
Answer
View full question & answer→We have, $\text{f(x)}=\frac{\text{ax}}{\text{x}+1}$ Now, $\text{f}(\text{f(x)})=\text{x}$ $\Rightarrow\text{f}\Big(\frac{\text{ax}}{\text{x}+1}\Big)=\text{x}$ $\Rightarrow\frac{\alpha\big(\frac{\text{ax}}{\text{x}+1}\big)}{\frac{\text{ax}}{\text{x}+1}+1}=\text{x}$ $\Rightarrow\frac{\frac{\alpha^2\text{x}}{\text{x}+1}}{\frac{\alpha\text{x}+\text{x}+1}{\text{x}+1}}=\text{x}$ $\Rightarrow\frac{\text{a}^2\text{x}}{\text{ax}+\text{x}+1}=\text{x}$ $\Rightarrow\frac{\alpha^2}{\text{ax}+\text{x}+1}=1$ $\Rightarrow\alpha^2=\alpha\text{x}+\text{x}+1$ $\Rightarrow\alpha^2-\alpha\text{x}-(\text{x}+1)=0$ $\Rightarrow\alpha^2-\alpha(\text{x}+1)+\alpha-(\text{x}+1)=0$ $\Rightarrow\alpha\big[(\alpha)-(\text{x}+1)\big]+1\big[\alpha-(\text{x}+1)\big]=0$ $\Rightarrow\big[\alpha-(\text{x}+1)\big]\big[\alpha+1\big]=0$ $\Rightarrow\alpha+1=0$ $\big[\because\ \alpha=\text{x}+1$ does not satisfies $\text{f}(\text{f(x)})=\text{x}\big]$ $\Rightarrow\alpha=-1$