MCQ 11 Mark
$A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]$ then $A^2=$
- A$\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{array}\right]$
- B$\left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 0 \\ 1 & 1\end{array}\right]$
- ✓$\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]$
- D$\left[\begin{array}{ll}0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0\end{array}\right]$
Answer
View full question & answer→Correct option: C.
$\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]$
Given
$
\begin{aligned}
& A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \\
& A^2=A \times A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \times\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \\
& =\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1+0 & 0+0 \\
0+0 & 0+1
\end{array}\right] \\
& =\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] . \\
&
\end{aligned}
$
$
\begin{aligned}
& A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \\
& A^2=A \times A=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \times\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] \\
& =\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1+0 & 0+0 \\
0+0 & 0+1
\end{array}\right] \\
& =\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right] . \\
&
\end{aligned}
$