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Question 14 Marks
In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon. Then, why does lac operon shut down some time after addition of lactose in the medium?
Answer
The lac operon consists of a regulatory gene and 3 structure genes. The lactose acts as an inducer. In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose, the repressor is inactivated by interaction with the inducer. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds. The repressor of the operon is synthesised. The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as nagetive regulation.

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Question 24 Marks
Differentiate between the genetic codes given below:
  1. Unambiguous and Universal.
  2. Degenerate and Initiator.
Answer
(a)
Unambiguous:
One codon codes for only one amino acid.
Universal:
Genetic code/codons are(nearly) same for all organisms/from bacteria to human.
(b)
Degenerate:
More than one codon coding for the same amino acid.
Initiator:
Start codon/AUG.
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Question 34 Marks
What are the characteristics of DNA?
Answer
Following are some features of DNA:
  1. DNA is made up of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is made up of sugar and phosphate groups and the nitrogenous bases project towards the centre.
  2. There is complementary base pairing between the two strands of DNA.
  3. The two strands are coiled in right-handed fashion and are anti-parallel in orientation. One chain has a 5′ → 3′ polarity while the other has 3′ → 5′ polarity.
  4. The diameter of the strand is always constant due to pairing of purine and pyrimidine, i.e., adenine is complementary to thymine while guanine is complementary to cytosine.
  5. The distance between two base pairs in a helix is 0.34nm and a complete turn contains approximately ten base pairs. The pitch of the helix is 3.4nm and the two strands are righthanded coiled.
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Question 44 Marks
With the help of a diagram explain the structure of DNA.
Answer
The structure of DNA is detailed below:

  1. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is composed of two polynucleotide strands which form a ladder.
  2. The nitrogenous bases in DNA store the information for the synthesis of polypeptide chains, essentially coding for every feature of the entire organism.
  3. The two polynucleotide strands run 'antiparallel' (in opposite directions, parallel to one another) to each other, with nitrogenous bases projecting inwards.
  4. The antiparallel strands twist in a complete DNA structure, forming a double helix.
  5. The strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases which lie opposite to each other.
  6. Bases bonded together are termed 'paired' and are very specific as to which base they will join.
  7. A purine will only pair with a pyrimidine. The purine adenine will always pair with the pyrimidine thymine (A-T). The purine guanine will only pair with the pyrimidine cytosine (G-C). These base pairings are termed complementary base pairings.
  8. Purines will always bond with pyrimidines because purines are larger molecules composed of a double ring structure. So, in order to ensure that the polynucleotide strands are equally spaced apart, the larger bases must pair with the smaller bases.
  9. The root for specific complementary base pairings is the number of hydrogen bonding sites available. Adenine and thymine have two sites each, whereas guanine and cytosine have three sites each. 

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Question 54 Marks
Who revealed biochemical nature of the transforming principle? How was it done?
Answer
Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), the genetic material was thought to be a protein. They worked to determine the biochemical nature of ‘transforming principle’ in Griffith’s experiment. They purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA, etc.) from the heatkilled S cells to see which ones could transform live R cells into S cells. They discovered that DNA alone from S bacteria caused R bacteria to become transformed.

They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA digesting enzymes (RNases) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or RNA. Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the DNA caused the transformation. They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all biologists were convinced.

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Question 64 Marks
Give an account of Hershey and Chase experiment. What did it conclusively prove? If both DNA and proteins contained phosphorus and sulphur do you think the result would have been the same?
Answer
Hershey and Chase Experiment:

  • Viruses were grown on two media. One medium contained radioactive phosphorus and another contained radioactive Sulphur.
  • Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but no such protein because protein does not contain phosphorus.
  • Viruses grown on radioactive Sulphur contained radioactive protein but no such DNA because DNA does not contain Sulphur.
  • Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E.coli bacteria. One the infection proceeded, the viral coat was removed from bacteria and then viral particles were separated from bacteria for further analysis.

Observation:

  • Radioactive DNA was seen in only those bacteria which were infected with phages grown on radioactive phosphorus.
  • Radioactive DNA was not seen in those bacteria which were infected with phages grown on radioactive Sulphur.

Conclusion: DNA was found to be the genetic material.

If both the DNA and proteins contained Sulphur and phosphorus, it would have not been possible to pinpoint the exact genetic material, i.e. DNA or proteins.

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Question 74 Marks
  1. Explain with the help of Griffith's experiment, how the search for genetic material was conducted and what was the conclusion drawn.
  2. How did Mac Leod, Mc Carty and Avery establish the Biochemical nature of the socalled. "genetic material' identified by Griffith in his experiments?
Answer
  1. Frederick Griffith (1928) performed the experiments on Bacterial transformation with Streptococcus pneumoniae, the bacterium that causes pneumonia.
  1. He observed two strains of this bacterium, one forming smooth shiny colonies with capsule (S-type) and the other forming rough colonies without capsule (R-type).
  2. The S-type cells are virulent while the R-type cells are non-virulent.
  3. When live S-type cells were injected into the mice, they suffered from pneumonia and died.

S strain → Injected into mice → Mice died.

  1. When live R-type cells were injected into the mice, the disease did not appear and the mice survived.

R strain → Injected into mice → Mice lived

  1. When heat-killed S-type cells were injected, the disease did not appear.

S strain → Injected into mice → Mice lived (Heat-killed)

  1. When heat-killed S-type cells were mixed with live R-type cells and injected into the mice, the mice died of pneumonia and live S-type cells were isolated from the body of the mice.

S strain (Heat-killed) + R strain (live)→ Injected into mice → Mice died.

  1. He concluded that the R-strain had somehow been transformed by the heat-killed S-strain bacteria into virulent S-strain, which must be due to the transfer of genetic material, the transforming principle.
  1. ​​​​​​​
  1. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty purified biochemicals like proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S-cells.
  2. When these fractions were added individually to the culture of live R-cells, DNA was able to cause transformation of R-cells into S-cells.
  3. They also found that protein-digesting enzymes and RNA-digesting enzymes did not affect transformation, indicating that transforming substance is not a protein or RNA.
  4. Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation; this suggests that the DNA caused transformation.
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Question 84 Marks
Explain the process of protein synthesis from processed mRNA.
Answer
Translation:

  • Translation is the process of synthesis of protein from mRNA with the help of ribosome.
  • A translational unit in mRNA from 5'→3' comprises of a start codon, region coding for a polypeptide, a stop codon and untranslated regions (UTRs) at both 5'-end and 3'-end for efficient process.

There are three stages of protein synthesis:

  1. Initiation:
  • Assembly of ribosome on mRNA.
  • Activation of amino acids and its delivery to tRNA.
  1. Elongation:
  • Repeated cycle of amino acid delivery.
  • Peptide bond formation and movement along the mRNA called translocation.
  1. Termination:
  • The release of a polypeptide chain.
  1. Initiation:
  • In prokaryotes, initiation requires the large and small ribosome subunits, the mRNA, initiation tRNA and three initiation factors (IFs).

  • Activation of amino acid: Amino acids become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme in the presence of ATP.

  • Transfer of amino acid to tRNA: The AA - AMP - Enzyme complex formed reacts with specific tRNA to form aminoacyl-tRNA complex. AA - AMP - Enzyme complex + tRNA → AA - tRNA + AMP + Enzyme.

  • The cap region of mRNA binds to the smaller subunit of ribosome.

  • The ribosome has two sites, A-site and P-site.

  • The smaller subunit first binds to the initiator mRNA and then binds to the larger subunit so that initiation codon (AUG) lies on the P-site.

  • The initiation tRNA, i.e., methionyl tRNA then binds to the P-site.

  1. Elongation of polypeptide chain:
  • Another charged aminoacyl tRNA complex binds to the A-site of the ribosome at the second codon.
  • A peptide bond is formed between carboxyl group (-COOH) of amino acid at P-site and amino group (-NH) of amino acid at A-site by the enzyme peptidyl transferase.
  • The ribosome slides over mRNA from codon to codon in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
  • According to the sequence of codons, amino acids are attached to one another by peptide bonds and a polypeptide chain is formed.
  1. Termination of polypeptide:
  • When the A-site of ribosome reaches a termination codon which does not code for any amino acid, no charged tRNA binds to the A-site.
  • Dissociation of polypeptide from ribosome takes place, which is catalysed by a 'release factor'.
  • There are three termination codons namely UGA, UAG and UAA.
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Question 94 Marks
  1. Mention the contributions of the following scientists:
  1. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin.
  2. Erwin Chargaff.
  1. Draw a double-stranded dinucleotide chain with all the four nitrogen bases. Label the polarity and the components of the dinucleotide.
Answer
  1.  
  1. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin provided the X-ray diffraction data of DNA, that helped Watson and Crick to propose the double helical model of DNA.
  2. Erwin Chargaff observed that for a double stranded DNA, the ratios between adenine and thymine and between guanine and cytosine are constant and equal to one; based on this, the base pairing between the two strands of DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick. 
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Question 104 Marks
  1. What are the three types of RNA?
  2. Which one of these has the shape of a clover-leaf in two dimensional structure?
  3. How is each RNA related in the information flow during protein synthesis? Explain.
Answer
  1. The three types of RNA are:
  1. Messenger RNA (mRNA).
  2. Transfer RNA (tRNA).
  3. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA).
  1. tRNA.
  2. The genetic information in DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA). It stores the genetic information from DNA and decides the sequence of amino acid in a polypeptide.

Transfer RNA (tRNA) acts as an adaptor molecule that at one end reads the code on mRNA and accordingly bind to amino acid on the other end. It recognises the codon on mRNA by its anticodon and leaves amino acid at the site of protein synthesis.

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) constitutes the ribosomal structure and helps to form peptide bond.

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Question 114 Marks
  1. Differentiate between repetitive and satellite DNA.
  2. How can satellite DNA be isolated? Explain.
  3. List two forensic application of this technology.
Answer
  1.  

  1. Satellite DNA is separated from the genomic DNA. by density gradient centrifugation; the satellite DNA forms smaller peaks, while the genomic DNA forms a major peak.
  2.  
  1. They form very useful tools in identification of criminals.
  2. It is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes.
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Question 124 Marks
  1. Give reasons for:
  1. Both strands of DNA are not copied during transcription.
  2. Transcription and translation in bacteria can be coupled.
  1. Differentiate between the process of transcription in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Answer
  1.  
  1. If both strands of DNA function as template, then these can code for the RNA having various sequences. If coded for polypeptides; they must have different amino acid sequences which will make the protein synthesis complex. When two RNA molecules are produced they will be complementary to one another; consequently dsRNA would result and to prevent RNA from being translated into protein.
  2. In prokaryotes, the mRNA synthesis does not require any processing to become active and since both transcription and translation occur in the same cytosol; translation can start much before the mRNA is fully transcribed. Consequently, transcription and translation can be coupled.
  1.  
S.No.
Transcription in Prokarytoes
Transcription in Eukaryotes
(i)
Products of transcription become effective in situ.
 
Products of transcription come out of the nucleus for
functioning in cytoplasm.
(ii)
There is only one RNA polymerase.
Three RNA polymerases take part in it.
(iii)
mRNA is polycistronic.
mRNA is monocistronic.
(iv)
Splicing is not required.
Splicing is required for removing introns.
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Question 134 Marks
  1. Explain the role of regulatory gene, operator, promoter and structural genes in lac operon when E.coli is growing in a culture medium with the source of energy as lactose.
  2. Mention what would happen if lactose is withdrawn from the culture medium.
Answer
  1. An operon is a part of DNA that functions as a gene regulatory unit in transcription. 
  1. Regulatory gene: This gene controls the operator gene. This produces a protein substance known as represser which combines with the operator gene to stop its function. 

  2. Operator: It controls the functioning of structural genes which are expressed when operate, gene is turned on by inducer and not expressed when operates is turned off by repressor. 

  3. Promoter: It is the site at which the RNA polymerase binds and reaches the structural genes for the transcription of mRNA to start.

  4. Structural genes: These genes produce mRNA which synthesize the specific proteins such as enzyme regained for metabolism of Lactose.

  1. If Lactose is withdrawn from the culture medium the operon is not induced or expressed.

If lactose is withdrawn from the culture medium the operon is not expressed. The repressor units with the operator gene and turns it off with the result the structural genes are inactivated and therefore the transcription and protein (enzyme) synthesis stops.

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Question 144 Marks
  1. Name two types of satellite DNA. Mention the basis for such a classification.
  2. Show only diagrammatically the process of transcription in bacteria.
Answer
  1. Minisatellites and microsatellites.

They are classified on the basis of:

  1. Base composition, i.e. A-T rich or G-C rich.
  2. Length of the segment.
  3. Number of repetitive units.

 

  1.  

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Question 154 Marks
  1. Describe the role of RNA polymerases in transcription in bacteria and in eukaryotes.
  2. Name the scientist who postulated the role of an 'adaptor' in protein synthesis. Name the adaptor molecule.
Answer
  1. Role of polymerase in transcription in bacteria:
  1. Initiation: $\sigma\text{ (sigma)}$ factor recognises the start signal and promotor region on DNA and the $\sigma\text{ (sigma)}$ with RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription.

  2. Elongation: The RNA polymerase after initiation of RNA transcription loses the $\sigma-\text{factor}$ but continues the process of RNA formation.

  3. Termination: Once the RNA polymerase reaches the termination region of DNA, the RNA polymerase is separated from DNA-RNA hybrid, as a result nascent RNA separates. This process is called termination which is facilitated by certain termination factor.

Role of polymerase in transcription in eukaryotes:

  1. In eukaryotes, apart from the RNA polymerase found in the organelles, three types of RNA polymerases are found in the nucleus.
  2. RNA polymerase II transcribes the precursor of mRNA (called as heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA).
  3. RNA polymerase III helps in transcription of tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNAs (small nuclear RNAs).
  1. Francis Crick postulated the role of an adaptor. tRNA or transfer RNA is the adaptor molecule.
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Question 164 Marks
  1. Explain with the help of Griffith’s experiment how the search for genetic material was conducted and what was the conclusion drawn?
  2. How did MacLeod, McCarty and Avery establish the biochemical nature of the so called ‘genetic material’ identified by Griffith in his experiment.
Answer
  1. The discovery of nuclein by Miescher and the proposition of principal of inheritance by Mendel were almost at the same time, i.e. 1869 and 1866, respectively. But the fact that DNA acts as a genetic material took a long time to be discovered and proven. By 1926, the quest to determine the mechanism for genetic inheritance had reached the molecular level and gradually the question, what molecule acts as genetic material got answered.

Transforming Principle

Frederick Griffith in 1928, carried out a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (a bacterium that causes pneumonia). He observed that when these bacteria (Streptococcus pneumoniae) were grown on a culture plate, some of them produced smooth, shiny colonies (S-type), whereas the others produced rough colonies (R-type). This difference in appearance of colonies (smooth/rough) is due to the presence or absence of mucus (polysaccharide) coat on S-strains, but not on R-strains. In his experiments, he first infected two separate groups of mice. The mice that were infected with the S-strain died from pneumonia as S-strains are the virulent strains causing pneumonia. S-strain (virulent strain) → Injected into mice → Mice died. The mice that were infected with the R-strain did not develop pneumonia and they lived. R-strain (non-virulent strain) → Injected into mice → Mice lived.

In the next set of experiments, Griffith killed the bacteria by heating them. The mice that were injected with heat-killed S-strain bacteria did not die and lived. S-strain (heat killed) → Injected into mice → Mice lived. Whereas, on injecting a mixture of heat-killed S-strain and live R-strain bacteria, the mice died. Moreover, living S-bacteria was recovered from the dead mice. S-strain (heat killed) + R-strain (live) → Injected into mice + Mice died.

From all these observations Griffith concluded that the live R-strain bacteria, had been transformed by the heat-killed S-strain bacteria, i.e. some 'transforming principle' had transferred from the heat-killed S-strain, which helped the R-strain bacteria to synthesise a smooth polysaccharide coat and thus, become virulent. This must be due to the transfer of the genetic material. However, he was not able to define the biochemical nature of genetic material from his experiments.

  1. Griffith was not able to find the chemical nature of transforming agent. It was finally Hershey and Chase who proved that DNA is the genetic material. They prov ed it by using radio labelled elements, such as 35S and 32P. Radioactivity was detected in the cell which was due to the presence of 32 Pin DNA.
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Question 174 Marks
Define an operon. giving an example, explain an Inducible operon.
Answer
A functioning unit of genomic DNA containing a cluster of genes under the control of a single promoter is called operon. An operon is generally transcribed into polycistronic mRNA. A single mRNA which codes for more than one protein is called polycistronic mRNA. An operon is made up of 3 basic DNA components:

  1. Promoter: A nucleotide sequence that enables a gene to be transcribed is called promoter. It is recognized by RNA polymerase, which then initiates transcription.
  2. Operator: A segment of DNA to which a repressor binds is called operator.
  3. Structural genes: The genes that are co-regulated by the operon are called structural genes.

Inducible Operon: When the operon is regulated by an inducer, it is called inducible operon. An inducer can switch on or off the operon. Lac operon is an example of inducible operon. Lactose is a substrate of enzyme beta-galactosidase and is the inducer of lac operon.

The given diagram shows the working of lac operon. In the absence of an inducer the repressor binds to the operator region and prevents transcription.

In the presence of an inducer, repressor becomes inactive. This allows transcription in the operator region which results in release of mRNA. Subsequently, mRNA promotes translation and protein synthesis is accomplished.

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Question 184 Marks
Define a cistron. Giving examples differentiate between monocistronic and polyeistronic transcription unit.
Answer
Portion of DNA having information for an entire polypeptide or trait is called cistron. However by defining a cistron as a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide, the structural gene in a transcription unit jcould be said as monocistronic (mostly in eukaryotes) or polycistronic (mostly in bacteria or prokaryotes). In eukaryotes, the monocistronic structural genes have interrupted coding sequences-the genes in eukaryotes are split. The coding sequences or expressed sequences are defined as exons. Exons are said to be those sequence that appear in mature or processed RNA. The exons are interrupted by introns. Introns or intervening sequences do not appear in mature or processed RNA.
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Question 194 Marks
A single base mutation in a gene may not ‘always’ result in loss or gain of function. Do you think the statement is correct? Defend your answer.
Answer
A single base mutation in a gene may not always results in loss or gain of function. We know that a codon is composed of three nucleotides. In simple terms, a codon can be taken as a word which is composed of 3 letters. For making any meaningful sentence we need a complete word. Addition or deletion of a single letter may not result in a meaningful word. Hence, in most of the cases, there is a need of mutation in three bases to affect loss or gain of function. This can be illustrated by following example of a sentence being altered:
  • RAM HAS RED CAP.
  • RAM HAS BRE DCA P.
  • RAM HAS BIR EDC AP.
  • RAM HAS BIG RED CAP.
It is clear that a meaningful sentence is made only when at least three letters are inserted in this sequence.
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Question 204 Marks
How did Meselson and Stahl experimentally prove that DNA replication is semiconservative? Explain.
Answer
It was to show that DNA replication is semiconservative.
After completion of replication, each new/ daughter molecule of DNA has one parental strand and one newly synthesised strand; this is called semiconservative replication of DNA.
Experiment:

  1. Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl performed the experiment.
  2. They grew E.coli, in a medium containing 15NH4CI, until 15N was incorporated in the two strands of newly formed E.coli cells; this 'heavy' DNA can be separated from the normal 14N-DNA by centrifugation in cesium chloride (CsCl) density gradient.
  3. Then they transferred the cells into a medium with normal 14NH4Cl and took out samples at various time intervals.
  4. They extracted the DNA and centrifuged it to measure the densities.
  5. The DNA extracted from cells after one generation after transfer from the 15N medium to 14N medium (i.e. after about 20 minutes), had an intermediate/ hybrid density.
  6. The DNA extracted after two generations (ie. after 40 minutes) consisted of equal amounts of 'light' DNA and 'hybrid' DNA.
  7. This proves that after replication, each DNA molecule has one parental strand and one newly-synthesised strand, i.e. replication is semiconservative.
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Question 214 Marks
What is tRNA? Where does it occur in a cell? Show by diagram the structure of tRNA. Write a note on the activation of amino acids and the involvement of tRNA in it?
Answer
tRNA is an adaptor molecule. It occurs in the cytoplasm.

Post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes For activation of amino acids:

Initiation:

  • In prokaryotes, initiation requires the large and small ribosome subunits, the mRNA, initiation tRNA and three initiation factors (IFs).
  • Activation of amino acid: Amino acids become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme in the presence of ATP.'
  • Transfer of amino acid to tRNA: The AA - AMP - Enzyme complex formed reacts with specific tRNA to form aminoacyl-tRNA complex. AA - AMP - Enzyme complex + tRNA → AA - tRNA + AMP + Enzyme.
  • The cap region of mRNA binds to the smaller subunit of ribosome.
  • The ribosome has two sites, A-site and P-site.
  • The smaller subunit first binds to the initiator mRNA and then binds to the larger subunit so that initiation codon (AUG) lies on the P-site.
  • The initiation tRNA, i.e., methionyl tRNA then binds to the P-site.
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Question 224 Marks
Mention three applications and future challenges of human genome project.
Answer
Salient Features of Human Genome:
  1. There are 3164.7 million nucleotide bases in the human genome.
  2. In an average gene, there are 3000 bases. The largest known human gene is Dystrophin (2.4 million bases).
  3. Total number of genes in human genome are estimated at 30,000. Almost, all (99.9%) of the nucleotide bases are exactly same in every human individual.
Applications and Future Challenges
  1. Its knowledge is helpful in research involving biological systems including human biology.
  2. With the whole genome sequences and newer technologies, we can be systematic in our approach to various medical questions on a broader scale.
  3. All the genes in a genome, e.g. all the transcripts in a particular tissue/ organ/ tumour can be studied.
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Question 234 Marks
Enumerate the salient features of human genome.
Answer
Salient features of Human Genome:
  1. The human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotides (base pairs).
  2. The size of the genes varies; an average gene consits of 3000 bases, while the largest gene, dystrophin consists of 2.4 million bases.
  3. The total number of genes is estimated to be 30000 and 99.9% of the nucleotides are the same in all humans.
  4. The functions of over 50% of the discovered genes are not known
  5. Only less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
  6. Repetitive segments make up a large portion of the human genome.
  7. Repetitive sequences throw light on chromosome structure and dynamics and evolution, though they are thought to have no direct coding functions.
  8. Chromosome 1 has 2968 genes and Y-chromosome has the least number (231 genes).
  9. Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations, where DNA differs in single base in human beings; these are called single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
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Question 244 Marks
One chromosome contains one molecule of DNA. In eukaryotes the length of the DNA molecule is enormously large. Explain how such a long molecule fits into the tiny chromosomes seen at metaphase.
Answer
In eukaryotes, there are certain positively charged, basic proteins, called histones. They are rich in basic amino acid residues, lysines and arginines. Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules, called a histone octamer.
The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer, to form nucleosome. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating units of chromatin which are thread like stained bodies. The nucleosomes are seen as 'beads-on-string structures' under an electron microscope.
Such beads-on-string structure is packaged to form chromatin fibres, that are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage of cell division, to form chromosomes.
The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins, called non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins.
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Question 254 Marks
Replication was allowed to take place in the presence of radioactive deoxynucleotides precursors in E.coli that was a mutant for DNA ligase. Newly synthesised radioactive DNA was purified and strands were separated by denaturation. These were centrifuged using density gradient centrifugation. Which of the following would be a correct result?

Answer
Option ‘a’ shown the correct result. The following diagram explains this:

Let us assume that heavier nitrogen was used in this experiment. This nitrogen molecule from parents’ cell would be transmitted equally in daughter cells. Each daughter cell will have half of the DNA with heavier nitrogen and another half with lighter nitrogen.
In the F2 generation, 50% of daughter cells will have a combination of radioactive and non- radioactive DNAs. The rest 50% of daughter cells will have non-radioactive DNAs.
This is the reason; the graph shows two peaks; each peak representing a particular form of nitrogen in DNA.
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Question 264 Marks
What is meant by R cells and S cells with which Frederick Griffith carried out this experiments on Streptococcus pneumoniae? What did he prove from these experiments?
Answer
The bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae has two strains virulent and non-virulent. The virulent strains causes pneumonia, whereas the non-virulent do not produce the disease.
Its virulent strain is known as S-type because when grown on a suitable medium they form smooth colonies. The non-virulent type of bacteria form irregular or rough colours and therefore called R-type. By his experiments Griffith concluded that the R-strain bacteria (non-virulent) has somehow been transformed by the heat killed S-type (virulent type), which must be due to the transfer of the genetic material.
Griffith proposed that the transforming principle is a chemical substance released by heat killed bacteria which changed the R-bacteria into S-bacteria.
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Question 274 Marks
The genetic code is, for the most part, universal, with few exceptions. Explain it by giving the example of mitochondria, the power house of cell.
Answer
The genetic codes are universal, with few exceptions and mitochondrial DNA includes some of these exceptions. For most organisms the 'stop codons are 'UAA', UAG and 'UGA'. In vertebrate mitochondria 'AGA' and 'AGG' are also stop codons, but not 'UGA', which codes for tryptophan instead. Another codon 'AUA' codes for isoleucine in most organisms, but for methionine in vertebrate mitochondrial mRNA.
There are many other variations among the codes used by other mitochondrial mRNA, which are not harmful to these organisms and can be used as a tool (along with other mutations among the mtDNA/ RNA of different species) to determine relative proximity of common ancestry of related species.
The more related any two species are, the more mtDNA/ RNA mutations will be the same in their mitochondrial genome. From this, it is estimated that the first mitochondria arose around 1.5 billion years ago. A generally accepted hypothesis is that mitochondria originated as an aerobic prokaryote in a symbiotic relationship within an anaerobic eukaryote.
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Question 284 Marks
There is only one possible sequence of amino acids when deduced from a given nucleotide. But multiple nucleotide sequences can be deduced from a single amino acid sequence. Explain this phenomenon.
Answer
Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon (known as degeneracy of codon), hence on deducing a nucleotide sequence from an amino acid sequence, multiple nucleotide sequences will be obtained.
For example: isoleucine has three codons AUU, AUC and AUA. Hence a dipeptide Met-Ile can have any of the following nucleotide sequences:
  1. AUG - AUU
  2. AUG - AUC
  3. AUG - AUA
If we deduce amino acid sequences of the above nucleotide sequences, all the three will code for Met-Ile.
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Question 294 Marks
Give an account of post transcriptional modifications of a eukaryotic mRNA.
Answer
Following events happen during transformation of hnRNA (precursor of mature mRNA):

  • Polymerase II facilitates transcription of hnRNA into mature mRNA.
  • Primary transcripts cotain both the introns and exons and these are non-functional. Splicing takes place which results in removal of introns and joining of exons in define order.
  • Capping and tailing happens in hnRNA. It acquires a cap of methyl guanosine and a tail of poly adenylate. Cap is added at 5’ end and Poly-A tail is added at 3’ end of hnRNA.
  • Now, the hnRNA changes into mature mRNA.

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Question 304 Marks
Describe with the help of labelled diagrammatic sketches, the experiment conducted by Hershey and Chase. Write the inference drawn by them.
Answer

Since only the DNA and the protein coat of the virus has entered the bacterial cell, it was conclusively proved that DNA and not protein, is the genetic material.
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Question 314 Marks
Describe the steps involved in the sequencing of genome of an organism.
Answer
Sequencing of a Genome:
  1. The methods involve two major approaches:
  1. One approach called Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs), focuses on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNAs.
  2. Second approach called Sequence Annotation, is to simply sequence the whole set of genome, that includes all the coding and non-coding sequences and then assigning functions to different regions in the sequence.
  1. The total DNA from the cell is isolated and converted into random fragments of relatively smaller sizes.
  2. These fragments are then cloned in suitable hosts using specialised vectors; the commonly used hosts are bacteria and yeast and the vectors are bacterial artificial chromosomes (BAC) and yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC).
  3. The fragments are then sequenced using automated DNA sequences.
  4. The sequences are then arranged on the basis of certain overlapping regions present in them; this requires the generation of overlapping fragments for sequencing.
  5. Specialised computer programmes are developed for alignment of the sequences.
  6. These sequences are annotated and assigned to the respective chromosomes.
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Question 324 Marks
Give an account of the methods used in sequencing the human genome.
Answer
Two approaches were involved in sequencing the Human genome,
Using expressed sequence tags (ESTs): In this approach, all the genes that are expressed as RNA are identified and then sequenced.
Blind approach: This approach involved sequencing the whole set of genome and then assigning different regions in the sequence with functions. This is referred to as sequence annotation. This approach is comprised of following steps:
  1. Total DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into random fragments of smaller sizes.
  2. These fragments are cloned in a suitable host by using specialized vectors. The cloning results into amplification of each fragment, and makes it easy to sequence the fragment. Bacteria and yeast are the commonly used hosts for this purpose. The vectors were called as BAC (bacterial artificial chromosomes) and YAC (yeast artificial chromosomes).
  3. Automated DNA sequencers were used to sequence the fragments. Then these sequences were arranged on the basis of some overlapping regions present in them.
  4. For generating overlapping fragments in these sequences; help of computer programmes was taken because it was not possible for humans to do so.
  5. Then the sequences were annotated and assigned to each chromosome.
  6. Genetic physical mapping of genome was done on the basis of polymorphism in some segments of the DNA.
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Question 334 Marks
During the course of evolution why DNA was chosen over RNA as genetic material? Give reasons by first discussing the desired criteria in a molecule that can act as genetic material and in the light of biochemical differences between DNA and RNA.
Answer
A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the following criteria:
  1. It should be able to generate its replica (Replication). Because of rule of base pairing and complementarity, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have the ability to direct their duplications. The other molecules in the living system, such as proteins fail to fulfill first criteria itself.
  2. It should chemically and structurally be stable. The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of life cycle, age or with change in physiology of the organism. Stability as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming principle’ itself that heat, which killed the bacteria, at least did not destroy some of the properties of genetic material. This now can easily be explained in light of the DNA that the two strands being complementary if separated by heating come together, when appropriate conditions are provided.
Further, 2' - OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA labile and easily degradable. RNA is also now known to be catalytic, hence reactive. Therefore, DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA. Therefore, among the two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better genetic material. In fact, the presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers additional stability to DNA.
  1. It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution. Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate. Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
  2. It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’. RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins, hence can easily express the characters. DNA, however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising machinery has evolved around RNA. The above discussion indicate that both RNA and DNA can function as genetic material, but DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. For the transmission of genetic information, RNA is better. RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence unstable. Therefore, DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable.
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Question 344 Marks
DNA separated from one cell, when introduced in another cell, is able to bestow some of the properties of the former to the latter. What is this change called in technical terms? Describe the experiment evidences which led to the discovery of the above phenomenon.
Answer
The change is called transformation.

Transforming Principle:

  • Frederick Griffith (1928) conducted experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium causing pneumonia).
  • He observed two strains of this bacterium-one forming smooth shiny colonies (S-type) with capsule, while other forming rough colonies (R-type) without capsule.
  • When live S-type cells were injected into mice, they died due to pneumonia.
  • When live R-type cells were injected into mice, they survived.
  • When heat-killed S-type cells were injected into mice, they survived and there were no symptoms of pnuemonia.
  • When heat-killed S-type cells were mixed with live R-type cells and injected into mice, they died due to unexpected symptoms of pneumonia and live S-type cells were obtained from mice.
  • He concluded that heat-killed S-type bacteria caused a transformation of the R-type bacteria into S-type bacteria but he was not able to understand the cause of this bacterial transformation.
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Question 354 Marks
  1. Explain the role of regulatory gene, operator, promoter and structural genes in lac operon, when E.coli is growing in a culture medium with the source of energy as lactose.
  2. Mention what would happen, if lactose is withdrawn from the culture medium.

OR

Describe how the lac operon operates both in the presence and absence of an inducer in E.coli.

Answer


  1. The regulatory (i) gene codes for repressor protein, which is synthesised constitutively all the time.
  2. It binds to the operator and prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon when lactose is absent; so the operon is 'switched off'.
  3. The promoter is the sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds for transcription.
  4. There are three structural genes in the lac operon of E.coli.
  1. Gene z codes for B-galactosidase, that catalyses the hydrolysis of lactose into glucose and galactose.
  2. Gene y codes for permease, which increases permeability of lactose into the cell.
  3. Gene a codes for transacetylase, that makes the lactose into its active form.
  1. When lactose is present in the cell, it functions as inducer.
  2. When it binds to the repressor and inactivates it, the repressor does not bind to the operator.
  3. This allows RNA polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds, i.e. the operon is 'switched on'.
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Question 364 Marks
Discuss the process of translation in detail.
Answer
Translation refers to the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis. The amino acids are joined by a bond which is known as a peptide bond. Formation of a peptide bond requires energy. Therefore, in the first phase itself amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA– a process commonly called as activation or charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA to be more specific.

  1. If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of peptide bond between them would be favoured energetically. The presence of a catalyst would enhance the rate of peptide bond formation. The cellular factory responsible for synthesising proteins is the ribosome. The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins. In its inactive state, it exists as two subunits; a large subunit and a small subunit.
  2. When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to protein begins. There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond. The ribosome also acts as a catalyst (23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme- ribozyme) for the formation of peptide bond or polyribonucleotides.
  3. A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon and codes for a polypeptide. An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop codon). They are required for efficient translation process.
  4. For initiation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon (AUG) that is recognised only by the initiator tRNA. The ribosome proceeds to the elongation phase of protein synthesis. During this stage, complexes composed of an amino acid linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to the appropriate codon in mRNA by forming complementary base pairs with the tRNA anticodon. The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA.
  5. Amino acids are added one by one, translated into olypeptide sequences dictated by DNA and represented by mRNA. At the end, a release factor binds to the stop codon, terminating translation and releasing the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.

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Question 374 Marks
What does the lac operon consist of? How is the operator switch on and off in the expression of gene in this operon? Explain.
Answer
The lac operon consists of structural genes, promoter, operator, repressor, and inducer.

When Lactose is Absent:

  1. When lactose is absent, i gene regulates and produces repressor mRNA which translate repression.
  2. The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and as a result prevents RNA polymerase to bind to the operon.
  3. The operon is switched off.

When Lactose is Present:

  1. Lactose acts as an inducer which binds to the repressor and forms an inactive repressor.
  2. The repressor fails to bind to the operator region.
  3. The RNA polymerase binds to the operator and transcribes lac mRNA.
  4. lac mRNA is polycistronic, i.e., produces all three enzymes, $\beta-\text{galactosidase,}$ permease and transacetylase.
  5. The lac operon is switched on.
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Question 384 Marks
Match the codons in Column I with the amino acids in Column II.
S. No.
Column I
 
Column II
A
UUU
1
Termination
B
AUG
2
Tyrosine
C
UAA
3
Phenylalanine
D
AGU
4
Methionine
E
UAC
5
Serine
Answer
S. No.
Column I
 
Column II
A
UUU
3
Phenylalanine
B
AUG
4
Methionine
C
UAA
1
Termination
D
AGU
5
Serine
E
UAC
2
Tyrosine
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Question 394 Marks
An organism is able to survive on a culture medium, containing nutrient A, by the enzyme-catalysed reactions.
$\text{A}\xrightarrow{\ \ \ \text{p}\ \ \ }\text{B}\xrightarrow{\ \ \ \text{q}\ \ \ }\text{C}\xrightarrow{\ \ \ \text{r}\ \ \ }\text{D}$
A mutant organism failed to survive on this medium, but grew well when nutrient B was added to it.
  1. Which gene of this mutant organism is defective?
  2. What does such a condition indicate of ?
  3. Mention the major components and their functions in an operon.
  4. Indicate the value expressed in this sequence of reactions.
Answer
  1. The gene p is defective.
  2. It indicates that one gene controls the synthesis of one enzyme.
  3. An operon has the following components.
  1. Structural gene(s) which transcribes the mRNA for the proteins synthesis.
  2. An operator gene, which controls the structural gene(s) as a unit.
  3. A promoter, where the RNA polymerase binds for transcription.
  1. Each one has a role to play and even if one fails, normal progress is not possible.
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Question 404 Marks
The biology teacher asked her students to verify the experiment on transformation principle in bacteria to establish DNA as genetic material. The class was divided into two groups. The teacher asked them to submit the reports. Group 2 did not use mouse and did not repeat Griffith's experiment. The teacher praised them.
  1. Which experiment did they perform?
  2. Explain the experiment in brief.
  3. Who and when performed the transformation principle experiment?
  4. What values did students of group 2 exhibit?
Answer
  1. The students repeated the experiment performed by Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44), who worked to determine the biochemical nature of transforming principle' in Griffith's experiment.
  2. Hershey and Chase experimented to find our whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses= that cnrered into the bacreria. They took rwo separate media- for gro*ing the; bacteriophages. Out of the rwo, one medium fontain-ed radioacrive phosphorus and the other medium contained radioactive sulPhur.
  3. Frederick Griffith in 1928 performed the transformation experiment.
  4. Scientific attitude, awareness and love for animals and respect towards government policies.
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Question 414 Marks
Draw a labelled schematic structure of a transcription unit. Explain the function of each component in the unit in the process of transcription.
Answer
Transcription unit: The transcription unit of DNA contains three regions in the DNA:

  1. The promoter: It is the binding site for RNA polymerase for initiation of transcription.

  2. The structural gene: It codes for enzyme or protein for structural functions.

  3. The terminator: It is the region where transcription ends.

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Question 424 Marks
Explain the steps involved in the elongation of polypeptide chain during its synthesis.
Answer
  1. An amino acyl tRNA complex reaches the A site and attaches to mRNA codon next to initiation codon with the help of its anticodon. The step requires GTP and an elongation factor.
  2. A peptide bond (-CO-NH-) is established between the carboxylic gp of (-COOH) amino acid attached to tRNA at P site and amino gp (NH) of amino acid attached to tRNA at A-site. The reaction is catalysed by enzyme peptidyl. transferase.
  3. In the process the connection between tRNA and amino acid at the P-site breaks. The free t-RNA of the P-site slips away and the A site carries peptidyl tRNA complex.
  4. Now the ribosome or mRNA rotates slightly. The process is called translocation.
  5. As a result of translocation, the A site codon along with peptidyl-tRNA complex reaches the P site. A new codon is exposed at the A site. It attracts a new amino-acyl tRNA complex.
  6. The process of bond formation and translocation is repeated. One by one all the codons of mRNA are exposed at the A' site and get decoded through incorporation of amino acids in the peptide chain. The peptide chain elongates.
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Question 434 Marks

  1. Identify the structure shown above.
  2. Redraw the structure as a replicating fork and label the parts.
  3. Write the source of energy for this replication and list the enzymes involved in this process.
  4. Mention the difference in the synthesis based on the polarity of the two template strands.
Answer
  1. It represents the parental or template DNA strands, showing the replication fork.
  2.  
  1. The deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates provide energy.
  2. DNA dependent DNA polymerase and DNA ligases are the enzymes involved;
  1.  
  1. On the template strand with 3' → 5' polarity, DNA synthesis is continuous, in the 5' → 3' direction.
  2. On the template strand with 5' → 3' polarity, DNA synthesis is discontinuous; DNA strand is synthesised as short segments, also in the 5' → 3' direction and the discontinuously synthesised segments become joined by DNA ligase.
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Question 444 Marks
Match the terms in Column I with those in Column II.
S. No.
Column I
 
Column II
A
Transcription
1
A set of three bases on RNA that is complementary to the bases of codon on mRNA.
B
Anticodon
2
A unit of DNA that codes for a polypeptide.
C
Cistron
3
Process of synthesis of polypeptide as dictated by mRNA.
D
Translation
4
Process by which mRNA carries the information from nucleus to ribosomes.
Answer
S. No.
Column I
 
Column II
A
Transcription
4
Process by which mRNA carries the information from nucleus to ribosomes.
B
Anticodon
1
A set of three bases on RNA that is complementary to the bases of codon on mRNA.
C Cistron 2 A unit of DNA that codes for a polypeptide.
D Translation 3 Process of synthesis of polypeptide as dictated by mRNA.
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Question 454 Marks
Explain the process of transcription in a prokaryote.

OR

 Describe the process of transcription in a bacterium.

Answer
  1. Transcription unit in a bacterium consists of a promoter, structural genes, terminator and the enzyme DNA-dependent RNA-Polymerase.
  2. In bacteria, there is a single RNA polymerase, which catalyses transcription of all the three types of RNAs (mRNA, tRNA and rRNA).
  3. It binds transiently with the initiation factor (sigma factor), binds to the promoter and initiates transcription.
  4. It also facilitates opening of the double helical DNA and only the DNA strand with 3' → 5' polarity is transcribed, as the enzyme can polymerise the nucleotides only in 5' → 3' direction; it catalyses elongation using the ribonucleotides.
  5. Once the polymerase reaches the terminator sequence, it associates with the termination factor and the nascent RNA falls off and termination of transcription occurs.
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Question 464 Marks

Shown above is the electron micrograph (EM) picture of 'beads-on-string'.
  1. Identify and explain the detailed structure of a bead with the help of a labelled diagram.
  2. Describe the packaging of 'beads-on-string'in a eukaryotic cell.
Answer
  1. The bead-like structures are the nucleosomes:
  1. There is a set of positively charged proteins, called histones, rich in basic amino acid residues, lysine and arginine.
  2. Histones are organised to form a unit of eight molecules, called histone octamer.
  3. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer, to form a nucleosome; a nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
  1.  
  1. The nucleosomes form the repeating units of the chromatin fibre in the nucleus; these nucleosomes of a chromatin are seen as the beads-on-string structure under electron microscope.
  2. The chromatin fibres are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage to form the chromosomes.
  3. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires another set of proteins, called non histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins.
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Question 474 Marks
Observe the representation of genes involved in the lac operon given below.

  1. Identify the region where the repressor protein will attach normally.
  2. Under certain conditions repressor is unable to attach at this site. Explain.
  3. If repressor fails to attach to the said site what products will be formed by z, y and a?
  4. Analyse why this kind of regulation is called negative regulation.
Answer
  1. Repressor will attach at the operator (o) region.
  2. If an inducer (like lactose) binds to the repressor and inactivates it, it cannot bind to the operator.
  3. If repressor is not bound to the operator, the operon is 'on' and transcription occurs.
  4. Rwgulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation. Lac operon can work under the control of positive regulation also.
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Question 484 Marks
Study the flow chart given below and answer the questions that follow:
  1. S strain into mice mice die.
  2. R strain into mice → mice live.
  3. Heat killed S strain + live R strain into mice → A
  4. Heat killed S strain + DNase + live R strain → into mice B
  1. Name the organism and differentiate between its two strains, R and S, respectively.
  2. Write the results A and B obtained in steps (e) and (d), respectively.
  3. Name the Scientist who performed the steps (a), (b) and (c).
  4. Write the specific conclusion drawn from the step (d).
Answer
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae:
  1. R-cells are those cells that form rough colonies, without a capsule and are non-virulent, i.e., they did not cause pneumonia.
  2. S-cells are those cells that form smooth colonies, protected by a capsule and are virulent, i.e., they caused the disease, pneumonia.
  3. He showed that DNA is the transforming principle.
  1. A. Mice died of pneumonia. B. Mice lived and did not suffer from pneumonia.
  2. Frederick Griffith performed the steps (a), (b) and (c).
  3. This indicates that DNA is the transforming principle.

When DNase is added to the medium, the DNA of the heat-killed cells gets digested and is unable to carry out the transformation.

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Question 494 Marks
Illustration below is a DNA segment, which constitutes a gene:

  1. Name the shaded and unshaded regions of gene.
  2. Explain how these genes are expressed.
  3. How is this gene different from prokaryotic gene in its expression?
Answer
  1. The shaded portions are introns and unshaded portions are exons.
  2. The primary RNA contains both introns and exons. By the mechanism of splicing, introns are removed and exons are joined to form functional mRNA after capping and tailing.

Post-transcriptional modifications:

  • The primary transcripts are non-functional, containing both the coding region, exon, and non-coding region, intron, in RNA and are called heterogenous RNA or hnRNA.
  • The hnRNA undergoes two additional processes called capping and tailing.
  • In capping, an unusual nucleotide, methyl guanosine triphosphate, is added to the 5′-end of hnRNA.
  • In tailing, adenylate residues (about 200 - 300) are added at 3′-end in a template independent manner.
  • Now the hnRNA undergoes a process where the introns are removed and exons are joined to form mRNA by the process called splicing.

 

  1. In prokaryotes, the structural gene is continuous and is not differentiated into exons and introns unlike eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, transcription is followed by translation without RNA splicing mechanism.
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Question 504 Marks
Look at the figure below depicting lac operon of E.coli.

  1. What could be the series of events when an inducer is present in the medium in which E. coli is growing?
  2. Name the Inducer.
Answer
  1. When the inducer is present, it combines with the repressor, coded by i gene. After reacting with repressor it inactivates the repressor The repressor now cannot bind to the operator; hence the pathway for RNA polymerase is open. The structural genes (z, y, a) are transcribed and the metabolism continues.
  2. Lactose is inducer.
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Question 514 Marks
Which methodology is used while sequencing the total DNA from a cell? Explain it in detail.
Answer
Methodologies of HGP:

The methods involve two major approaches:

  1. Expressed sequence tags (ESTs): This method focusses on identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA.

  2. Sequence annotation: It is an approach of simply sequencing the whole set of genome that contains all the coding and non-coding sequences, and later assigning different regions in the sequence with functions.

  • For sequencing, the total DNA from cell is first isolated and broken down in relatively small sizes as fragments.
  • These DNA fragments are cloned in suitable host using suitable vectors. When bacteria is used as vector, they are called bacterial artificial chromosomes (BAC) and when yeast is used as vector, they are called yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC).
  • Frederick Sanger developed a principle according to which the fragments of DNA are sequenced by automated DNA sequences.
  • On the basis of overlapping regions on DNA fragments, these sequences are arranged accordingly.
  • For alignment of these sequences, specialised computer-based programmes were developed.
  • Finally, the genetic and physical maps of the genome were constructed by collecting information about certain repetitive DNA sequences and DNA polymorphism, based on endonuclease recognition sites.
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Question 524 Marks
Transcription in eukaryotes is more complex process than in prokaryotes. Justify and compare the initiation, elongation and termination in bacterial cells with eukaryotes.
Answer
Transcription is more complex in eukaryotes due to following reasons:

  1. In prokaryotes only one type of RNA polymerase is involved whereas in eukaryotes three types of RNA polymerases are involved.
  2. For Description of processing of hnRNA involving-introns/ exons/ splicing in eukaryotes and for Description of capping and tailing.

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Question 534 Marks
Where do transcription and translation occur inside a living cell? Briefly describe the three steps involved in the process of translation?
Answer
S. No
 
Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes
(i)
Transcription
Occurs in cytosol
Occurs in nucleus
(ii)
Translation
Occurs in cytosol
Occurs in cytoplasm

Translation:

  • Translation is the process of synthesis of protein from mRNA with the help of ribosome.
  • A translational unit in mRNA from 5' → 3' comprises of a start codon, region coding for a polypeptide, a stop codon and untranslated regions (UTRs) at both 5'-end and 3'-end for efficient process.

There are three stages of protein synthesis:

  1. Initiation:
  • Assembly of ribosome on mRNA.
  • Activation of amino acids and its delivery to tRNA.
  1. Elongation:
  • Repeated cycle of amino acid delivery.
  • Peptide bond formation and movement along the mRNA called translocation.
  1. Termination:
  • The release of a polypeptide chain.
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Question 544 Marks
Explain the steps involved in a polypeptide synthesis. How are the amino acids activated during polypeptide synthesis?
Answer
  1. Initiation:
  • In prokaryotes, initiation requires the large and small ribosome subunits, the mRNA, initiation tRNA and three initiation factors (IFs).

  • Activation of amino acid: Amino acids become activated by binding with aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme in the presence of ATP.

  • Aminoacid(AA) + ATP → synthetases Aminoacy lt RNA AA - AMP - Enzymecomplex + Pi

  • Transfer of amino acid to tRNA: The AA - AMP - Enzyme complex formed reacts with specific tRNA to form aminoacyl-tRNA complex. AA - AMP - Enzyme complex + tRNA → AA - tRNA + AMP + Enzyme.

  • The cap region of mRNA binds to the smaller subunit of ribosome.
  • The ribosome has two sites, A-site and P-site.
  • The smaller subunit first binds to the initiator mRNA and then binds to the larger subunit so that initiation codon (AUG) lies on the P-site.
  • The initiation tRNA, i.e., methionyl tRNA then binds to the P-site.
  1. Elongation of polypeptide chain:
  • Another charged aminoacyl tRNA complex binds to the A-site of the ribosome at the second codon.
  • A peptide bond is formed between carboxyl group (-COOH) of amino acid at P-site and amino group (-NH) of amino acid at A-site by the enzyme peptidyl transferase.
  • The ribosome slides over mRNA from codon to codon in the 5′ → 3′ direction.
  • According to the sequence of codons, amino acids are attached to one another by peptide bonds and a polypeptide chain is formed.
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Question 554 Marks
Raj was a known sportsman in his school. While returning home he found some unknown miscreants beating a young fellow. He tried to drive them off, but by that time the fellow died of injury. The police arrested Raj and he was put on trial. The judge being convinced by Raj's plea, ordered for DNA fingerprinting reports.
  1. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
  2. Explain the steps in DNA fingerprinting.
  3. Write the applications of DNA fingerprinting.
  4. Raj's fingerprints on the dead body were sufficient to convict him but the judge asked for authentic proof. What values can be observed by the judge?
Answer
  1. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA.
  2. The technique has the following steps.
  1. DNA Isolation DNA is ocracted from the cells in a high speed centrifuge.

  1. Amplification Many copies of the extracted DNA can be made by the use of polymerase chain reaction.
  2. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
  3. Separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis.
  4. Southern blotting Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes (like nylon or nitrocellulose).
  5. Hybridisation with the help of a radio labelled VNTR probe (small segments of DNA which help to detect the presence of a gene in a long DNA sequence) which gets anached to single stranded VNTRs having complementary nucleotide sequences.
  6. Autoradiographic exposure to X-ray films Detection of hytridised DNA fragments by autorediography. This shows many dark bands of different sizes.
  1. Applications of DNA fingerprinting are-
  1. As a tool in forensic investigations.
  2. to settle paternity disputes.
  1. The judge showed wisdom and intention to search for the truth.
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Question 564 Marks
Describe in detail the steps involved in the replication of DNA.
Answer
Process of DNA Replication:
  1. DNA replication begins at a unique and fixed point called origin of replication or 'ori'. Initiation.
  2. The complementary strands of DNA double helix are separated by two enzymes, DNA gyrase and DNA helicase. This is called unwinding of double-stranded DNA.
  3. The separated strands tend to rewind, therefore these are stabilised by proteins called single strand binding proteins (ssBPs), which bind to the separated strands.
  4. Unwinding of double-stranded DNA forms a Y-shaped configuration in the DNA duplex, which is called replication fork.Elongation.
  5. An enzyme called primase initiates replication of the strand oriented in the 3′ (towards origin) → 5′ (towards fork) direction. This generates 10 - 60 nucleotides long primer RNA (replicated in 5′ → 3′ direction).
  6. The free 3′-OH of this RNA primer provides the initiation point for DNA polymerase for sequential addition of deoxyribonucleotides.
  7. DNA polymerase progressively adds deoxyribonucleotides to the free 3′-end of the growing polynucleotide chain so that replication of the 3′ → 5′ strand of the DNA molecule is continuous (growth of the new strand in 5′ → 3′ direction).
  8. The replication of 3′ → 5′ strand is continuous and it is called leading strand, while the replication of second strand (5′ → 3′ strand) of the DNA molecules is discontinuous and it is known as the lagging strand.
  9. The replication of lagging strand generates small polynucleotide fragments called 'Okazaki fragments' (after R. Okazaki, who first identified them).
  10. These Okazaki fragments are then joined together by enzyme called DNA ligase.
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Question 574 Marks
How does replication of the long DNA molecule occur? Explain the process.

OR

Explain the process of DNA replication with the help of a replicating fork.

Answer
  1. Replication of DNA.
  2. Replication of DNA occurs during S-phase of cell cycle.
  3. During replication of DNA, the two strands unwind upto a point and a replication fork is formed.
  4. Since the unwinding cannot take place for the entire length, replicaion starts from the replication fork.
  5. Both the strands act as templates for DNA synthesis.
  6. DNA polymerase is the enzyme that polymerises the bases/ nucleotides into a strand of DNA.
  7. Since this enzyme polymerises the nucleotides in 5' → 3' direction only, on one of the template strands (with 3' → 5' polarity), the new strand is synthesised as a continuous stretch (leading strand); it is called continuous synthesis.
  8. On the other template strand, (with 5' → 3' polarity), DNA strand is synthesised as short stretches (using primers), called Okazaki fragments; this is called discontinuous synthesis.
  9. Later, these short stretches are joined by DNA-ligase (lagging strand).
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Question 584 Marks
Enlist the salient features of the double helix structure of DNA.
Answer
  1. DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains, where the backbone is constituted by sugar-phosphate and the nitrogen bases project inside.
  2. The two chains have antiparallel polarity, i.e. one chain has 5' → 3' polarity, while the other has 3' → 5' polarity.
  3. The nitrogen bases in the two strands are paired through weak hydrogen bonds, forming base pairs; a purine always pairs with a pyrimidine, i.e., adenine pairs with thymine through two hydrogen bonds and guanine with cytosine through three hydrogen bonds.
  4. The two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion;
  5. the pitch of the helix is 3.4nm and there are 10 base pairs in each turn, with the distance between consecutive base pairs being 0.34nm.
  6. The plane of one base pair stacks over the other in double helix; this confers stability of the helical structure.
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Question 594 Marks
Write the sequence of steps involved in the sequencing of genome of an organism.
Answer
Sequencing of Genome:
  1. First the total DNA from a cell is isolated and converted into random fragments of smaller sizes.
  2. Then these fragments are cloned in a suitable host, (such as bacteria and yeast) using specialised vectors such as BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome) and YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosome).
  3. The cloning of DNA fragments lead to the amplification of each fragment, which helps in easy sequencing process.
  4. The DNA fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers, which work on the principle developed by Frederick Sanger.
  5. These sequences were then arranged on the basis of some overlapping regions present in them. This required generation of overlapping fragments for sequencing.
  6. The specialised computer based programmes were developed for the alignment of these sequences.
  7. These sequences were subsequently annotated and assigned to each chromosome. The sequence of chromosome I was completed only in May, 2006 (this was the last of the 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced).
  8. The next challenging task was to assign the genetic and physical maps on the genome. This was generated using the information on polymorphism of restriction endonuclease recognition sites and certain repetitive DNA sequences called as microsatellites.
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Question 604 Marks
Study the schematic representation of the genes involved in the lac operon given below and answer the questions that follow.

  1. Identify and name the regulatory gene in this operon. Explain its role in 'switching off the operon.
  2. Why is lac operon's regulation referred to as negative regulation?
  3. Name the inducer molecule and the products of the genes 'z' and 'y of the operon. Write the function of these gene products.
Answer
  1. Regulatory gene in this operon is i gene. Role of regulatory gene in switching off operon is as follows:
  1. It codes for the repressor protein of the operon, which is synthesised constitutively.
  2. The repressor has affinity for the operator gene. It binds to operator and prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes.
  1. When repressor binds to the operator, the operon is switched off and transcription is stopped. So, it is called a negative regulation.
  2. Lactose is an inducer molecule.
  1. Z gene codes for B-galactosidase (b-gal), that helps in the hydrolysis of disacchoride into its monomeric units, i.e. lactose into galactose and glucose.
  2. Y gene codes for pwemease, that increases the permeability of the cell to B-galactosides.
  3. a gene codes for a transacetylase.
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Question 614 Marks
Observe the representation of genes involved in the lac operon given below:

  1. Identify the region where the repressor protein will attach normally.
  2. Under certain conditions repressor is unable to attach at this site. Explain.
  3. If repressor fails to attach to the said site what products will be formed by z, y and a?
  4. Analyse why this kind of regulation is called negative regulation.
Answer
  1. The repressor protein will attach to operator region, o.
  2. In presence of an inducer, lactose, repressor is unable to attach.
  3. c. $\text{z}-\beta\text{ galactosidase}$

y-permease

a-Transacetylase

  1. d. It is called negative regulation as it involves constitutive (all the time) repressor. The operon is always in off position due to presence of repressor and is switched on only in presence of an inducer. Inducer Lactose or allolactose interacts with repressor making it inactive.
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Question 624 Marks
‘There is a paternity dispute for a child’. Which technique can solve the problem. Discuss the principle involved.
Answer
DNA finger printing is used to solve the paternity dispute. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times. These repetitive DNA are separated from bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation.

The bulk DNA forms a major peak and the other small peaks are referred to as satellite DNA. Depending on base composition (A : T rich or G : C rich), length of segment, and number of repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories, such as micro-satellites, mini-satellites etc. These sequences normally do not code for any proteins, but they form a large portion of human genome.

These sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting. Since DNA from every tissue (such as blood, hair-follicle, skin, bone, saliva, sperm etc.), from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism, they become very useful identification tool in forensic applications. Further, as the polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children, DNA fingerprinting is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes.

The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys. Lalji Singh is called father of Indian DNA fingerprinting or DNA profiling or DNA typing. He used a satellite DNA as probe that shows very high degree of polymorphism. It was called as Variable Number of Tandem Repeats (VNTR).

The technique, as used earlier, involved Southern blot hybridisation using radiolabelled VNTR as a probe. It included,

  1. Isolation of DNA.
  2. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
  3. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
  4. Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as nitrocellulose or nylon.
  5. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
  6. Detectionof hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.
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