c
$\mathrm{H}_{1}=$ Magnetic field at $\mathrm{M}$ due to $\mathrm{PQ}+$ Magnetic field at $M$ due to $QR$
But magnetic field at $\mathrm{M}$ due to $\mathrm{QR}=0$
Now $\quad \mathrm{H}_{2}=$ Magnetic field at $\mathrm{M}$ due to $\mathrm{PQ}$ (cument $\mathrm{I}$ )
$+$ Magnetic field at $M$ due to $QS$ (current $1/2$)
$+$ Magnetic field at $M$ due to $QR$
$=\mathrm{H}_{1}+\frac{\mathrm{H}_{1}}{2}+0=\frac{3}{2} \mathrm{H}_{1}$
$\therefore \quad \frac{\mathrm{H}_{1}}{\mathrm{H}_{2}}=\frac{2}{3}$
Magnetic field at any point lying on the current carrying straight conductor is zero.