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Biotechnology: Principles and Processes question types

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Sample Questions

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes questions

One sample from each question group in this chapter. Select any group above to see the full set with answer keys.

Introduction of one or more genes into an organism which normally does not possess them or their deletion by using artificial means (not by breeding) comes under.
  • A
    Molecular Biology.
  • B
    Cytogenetics.
  • C
    Genetic hybridization.
  • D
    Genetic Engineering.
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A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein. Reasons could be:
  • A
    Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different.
  • B
    Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria.
  • C
    Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot process.
  • D
    All of the above.
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Make a chart (with diagrammatic representation) showing a restriction enzyme, the substrate DNA on which it acts, the site at which it cuts DNA and the product it produces.
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Q 183 Marks Question3 Marks
Can you think and answer how a reporter enzyme can be used to monitor transformation of host cells by foreign DNA in addition to a selectable marker?
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Q 193 Marks Question3 Marks
  1. Explain the significance of 'palindromic nucleotide sequence' in the formation of recombinant DNA.
  2. Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process.
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Q 213 Marks Question3 Marks
  1. Name the selectable markers in the cloning vector pBR322? Mention the role they play.
  2. Why is the coding sequence of an enzyme (â-galactosidase) a preferred selectable marker in comparison to the ones named above?
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If a desired gene is identified in an organism for some experiments, explain the process of the following:
  1. Cutting this desired gene at specific location.
  2. Synthesis of multiple copies of this desired gene.
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  1. Describe the characteristics a cloning vector must possess.
  2. Why DNA cannot pass through the cell membrane? Explain. How is a bacterial cell made ‘competent’ to take up recombinant DNA from the medium?
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Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Restriction endonuclease recognises palindromic sequence in DNA and cuts them.
Reason: Palindromic sequence has two unique recognition sites Pst I and Pvu I recognised by restriction endonuclease.
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Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: The insertion of DNA fragment into pBR 322 plasmid using enzyme Pst I or Pvu I make ampicillin resistant gene non functional.
Reason: Bacterial cells containing recombinant pBR322 is unable to grow in the presence of ampicillin.
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Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzyme.
Reason: In pBR 322 alien DNA is ligated generally in the area of Bam - HI site of tetracycline resistance gene.
  1. If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
  2. If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
  3. If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
  4. If both the assertion and reason are false.
  5. If the assertion is false but reason is true.
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Directions: In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have been put forward. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
Assertion: A bacterial cell with no restriction enzymes will be easily infected and lysed by bacteriophages.
Reason: Restriction enzymes catalyse synthesis of protective coat around bacterial cell that prevents bacteriophage attack.
  1. Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
  3. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
  4. Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
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Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
Assertion: Bacteriophage vectors are more advantageous than plasmid vectors.
Reason: Bacteriophage vectors can be easily detected at the time of cloning experiments.
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Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
In recombinant DNA technology, the fragments of DNA generated after cutting the DNA by restriction enzymes are separated according to their size or length by gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis is performed in a gel matrix so that molecules of similar electric charges can be separated on the basis of size. Most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis is agarose. The fragments are separated under the influence of electric field. The separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining the DNA with compound known as ethidium bromide (EtBr) followed by exposure to UV radiation as bright orange band.
  1. Gel electrophoresis is used for the separation of
  1. DNA only.
  2. DNA and RNA only.
  3. DNA and proteins only.
  4. DNA, RNA and proteins.
  1. Most commonly used matrix is _____ which is a ______ extracted from _______.
  1. (i) agarose (ii) polysaccharide (iii) sea weed
  2. (i) agarose (ii) protein (iii) sea weed
  3. (i) EtBr (ii) polysaccharide (iii) sea weed
  4. (i) EtBr (ii) protein (iii) bacteria
  1. A DNA molecule was treated with a restriction endonuclease and three fragments of size (i) 426kb, (ii) 129kb and (iii) 46kb were obtained. Identify the order in which these bands will arrange themselves in the gel plate after gel electrophoresis is completed. (Assuming that negative part of electrode is towards the well)
  1. (iii) → (ii) → (i)
  2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
  3. (i) → (iii) → (ii)
  4. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
  1. Which of the following statements regarding gel electrophoresis is incorrect?
  1. Separated DNA fragments can be seen only after staining DNA with EtBr.
  2. DNA fragments are separated according to their size.
  3. Under the influence of electric field, positively charged molecules move towards the anode and negatively charged molecules move towards the cathode.
  4. None of these.
  1. The factor that will not affect the rate of DNA migration in gel electrophoresis is:
  1. Size of DNA molecule.
  2. Concentration of DNA.
  3. Voltage supplied.
  4. Concentration of the gel.
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Read the following and answer any four questions from 2(i) to 2(v) given below:

Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first ti me by W. Arb er in 1962 in bacteria. Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA duplex at specific points therefore they are also called as molecular scissors or biological scissors. Three types of restriction endonucleases are Type I, Type II and Type III but only Type II restriction endonucleases are used in recombinant DNA technology. Restriction endonuclease EcoR I recognises the base sequence GAATTC in DNA duplex and cut strands between G and A.

  1. Only type II restriction enzymes are used in gene manipulation because
  1. ATP is not required for cleaving.
  2. It consists of three different subunits.
  3. It makes cleavage or cut in both the strands of DNA molecule.
  4. Both (a) and (c).
  1. Which of the following ions are used by restriction endonucleases for restriction?
  1. Mg2+ ions
  2. Mn2+ ions
  3. Na2+ ions
  4. K2+ ions
  1.  Restriction endonuclease was isolated for the first time in a:
  1. Plant cell.
  2. Animal cell.
  3. Prokaryotic cell.
  4. Genninal cell.
  1. Restriction endonucleases are also called as molecular or biological scissors because,
  1. They cleave base pairs of DNA only at their terminal ends.
  2. They cleave one or both the strands of DNA.
  3. They act only on single stranded DNA.
  4. None of these.
  1. Select the option that correctly states the working action of restriction endonuclease EcoR I on DNA sequence GAATTC
  1. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  2. $ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  3. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

  4. $\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \downarrow\\5'-\text{GAATTC}-3'\\3'-\text{CTTAAG}-5'\\\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \uparrow$

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Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:

Tools used in the formation of recombinant DNA are of three types. These are enzymes, cloning vectors and competent host. lysing enzymes are used to extract DNA for experimental purpose from the cells. Cleaving enzymes break the DNA molecules. TI1ey are of three types : exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction endonucleases. A competent host is required for transformation with recombinant DNA and cloning vectors help to propagate DNA.

  1. Which of the following is an example of natural Iysing activity in a human body?
  1. Lysozyme present in tears dissolve the bacterial cell wall.
  2. Conversion of starch to maltose in the buccal cavity
  3. Absorption of digested food into the intestinal cells.
  4. Conversion of protein molecules into amino acids in the stomach.
  1. Which of the following depicts exonuclease activity?
  1.  

  1.  

  1.  

 

  1. All of these
  1. Cloning vectors are the DNA molecules that.
  1. Carry foreign DNA segment but do not replicate inside the host cell.
  2. Carry foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell.
  3. Transfer nuclear DNA form nucleus to the cytoplasm of the same cells.
  4. Help in sealing gaps in DNA segments.
  1. Transfer of DNA into a eucaryotic cell is called:
  1. Transformation.
  2. Transduction.
  3. Transfection.
  4. Electroporation.
  1. Assertion: Type I restriction enzymes are not used in rDNA technology.

Reason: Biotechnology mostly involves cutting and pasting of desired DNA fragments.

  1. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
  2. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but reason is false.
  4. Both assertion and reason are false.
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Read the following and answer any four questions from 7(i) to 7(v) given below:

The vectors are DNA molecules that can carry a foreign DNA segment and replicate inside the host cell. Vectors may be plasmids, bacteriophages (viruses that attack bacteria), cosmids, yeast artificial chromosomes (YACs), Bacterial artificial chromosomes (BACs) and viruses. The most widely used, versatile, easily manipulated vector pBR 322 is an ideal plasmid vector. Features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector includes origin of replication (Ori) which is a specific sequence of DNA bases responsible for initiating replication, selectable marker genes and cloning sites

  1. Pin pBR 322 denotes that it is a:
  1. plasmid
  2. prokaryote
  3. protist
  4. plant cell.
  1. Ori is a specific DNA sequence that help in.
  1. Attachment of primers.
  2. Initiation of replication.
  3. Extension of DNA base.
  4. Initiation of denaturation.
  1. A and B shown in the figure respectively indicates:

  1. Pvu II and Cla I.
  2. ROP and Sal I.
  3. ampR and tetR.
  4. tetR and ampR.
  1. Selectable markers in vector,
  1. Are responsible for replication.
  2. Help in selecting transformants from non-transform ants.
  3. Code for proteins involved in the replicating plasmids.
  4. Contain unique recognition sites.
  1.  Plasmid vectors are:
  1. dsDNA molecule
  2. Extra-chromosomal
  3. Present in bacteria and yeast
  4. All of these.
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Read the following and answer any four questions from 6(i) to 6(v) given below:

Rama lives in a society where a robbery occurred last night. Robbers came into the flat and murdered the old lady residing there. Police came and restricted the entry into the flat. They took samples from the room, where the dead body was found. While examining, they found that there is some blood and tissue in the nails of old lady. According to their observation, police filtered out their inspection to three suspects viz. servant, cook and milkman. Finally after two days of robbery, police caught the criminal. It was the old lady's cook. Rama was amazed to see that how quickly police completed and shut the case. She asked the inspector that how they did it? The police man told her that it become possible due to the sample collected from the victim, that lead them to the criminal. TI1e sample taken from nail scraping was amplified using PCR and then tested.

  1. What technique was used by the police to identify the criminal?
  1. DNA fingerprinting.
  2. Gel electrophoresis.
  3. Molecular diagnosis.
  4. Clonning.
  1. In PCR, the temperature used to denature the DNA is about:
  1. 76º
  2. 25º
  3. 95º
  4. 40º
  1. Which of the following statements regarding PCR is correct?
  1. Taq polymerase, which is isolated from bacterium Thermus aquaticus is stable at low temperature only.
  2. With the help of DNA ligase, the complementary sticky ends of the DNA are joined to produce a rDNA.
  3. Since the sequence of primers are complementary to 5' end of the template DNA, they anneal to it.
  4. DNA purified from the cell is precipitated by adding hot ethanol.
  1. Taq polymerase synthesises DNA region between the primers using:
  1. Mg2+
  2. dNTPs
  3. DNA ligase
  4. Both (a) and (b).
  1. Given below are steps of polymerase chain reaction.

Select the option that correctly mention the sequence in which they occur.

  1. (ii) → (iii) → (i)
  2. (i) → (ii) → (iii)
  3. (iii) → (i) → (ii)
  4. (ii) → (i) → (iii)
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